0

In Christian bibles the Book of Ruth is placed immediately after the Book of Judges, reflecting the time when the story takes place. In Jewish bibles it is located in the Writings (Ketuvah), among the famous "Five Scrolls" - Song of Songs, Ruth, Lamentations, Ecclesiastes, and Esther - and is important in the celebration of Shavuot (the Feast of Weeks).

What, if any, are the hermeneutical issues involved the placement of Ruth in the two major biblical canons? (Answers need not exclude historical and cultural factors.)


Note: I ask the question here rather than in se.Christianity because it deals with the Jewish canon equally with the Christian.

Dan Fefferman
  • 15,919
  • 2
  • 12
  • 62

2 Answers2

1

An article published in 1906 The Jewish Encyclopedia V10 pp Executive Committee of the Editorial Board., George A. Barton pp576-577 covers Ruth and its dating:

According to Bewer the Book of Ruth is later than H., i.e., it is post-exilic. This view of the date is for other reasons held by many scholars (e.g., Kuenen, "Historische Bücher des Alten Testaments," i., part 2, p. 195; Cornill, "Einleitung," p. 241; Nowack, l.c.; Bertholet, l.c.; and Kautzsch, "Literature of the Old Testament," p. 129). The days of the Judges are referred to as a time far past (i. 1), and even the law of Deut. xxv. 5 et seq. is referred to as a custom now obsolete (comp. Ruth iv.7); the language of the book contains several Aramaisms(e.g., , i. 4; , i. 13; and , iv. 7); the interest in the genealogy of David (iv. 20 et seq.) is thought to indicate a date when David had become the ideal of the nation; and the evident interest of the author in the marriage of an Israelite with a Moabitess—an interest in sharp contrast to the law of Deut. xxiii. 3 et seq. as well as the procedure of Ezra and Nehemiah (Ezra ix., x., and Neh. xiii. 23 et seq.)—indicates that the author of Ruth was a contemporary of Ezra and Nehemiah and wrote the book to show that their opposition to foreign marriages was contrary to ancient and most honorable precedent.

Although Driver ("Introduction," p. 427) urges that the general beauty and purity of style of Ruth indicate a pre-exilic date, holding that the Davidic genealogy at the end is probably a later addition, the post-exilic origin of Ruth seems to be confirmed by its position among the "Ketubim," in the third part of the canon. The view which makes it a tract against the marriage policy of Ezra and Nehemiah seems most probable.

Seemingly then, the authorship of Ruth post-dates Moab by a considerable time. And its placement in the canon is based simply upon its story rather than its authorship date, or its poetic idyll.

agarza
  • 4,297
  • 6
  • 15
  • 32
  • This is interesting but based entirely on speculation without providing a scintilla of evidence. – Dottard Sep 26 '23 at 21:29
  • I have not verified the references, of which there are many. But a respectable archive source, and as you say the whole article is interesting per se. –  Sep 26 '23 at 21:41
  • 1 ... Good info. about its probably post-exilic origin figuring into its placement in the Writings. It strikes me that Judges and Kings are included among the Prophets by Jewish authorities - Judges written by Samuel and Kings by Jeremiah - and it would be improper to think of Ruth that way if it is post-exilic.
  • – Dan Fefferman Sep 26 '23 at 23:27
  • Almost everyone of the indicators listed in that article can be used as evidence for the exact opposite conclusion or flat out misunderstands the text (the old custom being referenced in the verses is how property was transferred--not levirate marriage). And on its surface it appears to be providing a justification and explanation for David's legitimacy as the King of Israel. This is very strange if the book was composed after the Davidic dynasty had ended. It was probably composed at the beginning of David's reign, perhaps while he was still competing with Saul's son for kingship. – conceptualinertia Oct 04 '23 at 17:10
  • @DanFefferman According to the Talmud, Ruth was written by Samuel. It's inclusion in "Writings" as opposed to Prophets would be because it was not written using Prophecy. – conceptualinertia Oct 04 '23 at 17:12