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Jeremiah 8:10

“Therefore I will give their wives to others, Their fields to new owners; Because from the least even to the greatest Everyone is greedy for gain; From the prophet even to the priest Everyone practices deceit.” ‭‭NASB1995‬‬

Were women considered to be more like property (like fields) in the times of this prophecy? Why would God decree that He would give men’s wives to others because of their husbands’ sin? It seems like this is a punishment to the men, are there other interpretations?

Lilias Carmichael
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This particular verse is not about men treating women as property, because it is the Lord God who is speaking. As their God and their Creator, he has the right to dispose of everything.

The people have been "backsliding" (ch8 v5). They have looked to idols and turned away from him; "They hold fast to deceit, they refuse to return". All this is because "my people know not the ordinance of the Lord" (v7).

Therefore he proposes to take EVERYTHING away from them, all the things he has given. Their wives and their fields will be given to others. In many cases, he will have taken away their lives first; "For the Lord our God has doomed us to perish" (v14). If they were dead, then their wives and their fields would fall to others in any case.

(Although it is not directly relevant to this verse, I might add that treatment of women as property was common in many societies before the 20th century. A classic Biblical example is the treatment of Saul's daughter Michal; married to David, given by her father to another man, and then forcibly reclaimed for David's benefit- 1 Samuel ch25 v44, 2 Samuel ch3 vv12-16)

Stephen Disraeli
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  • "common in many societies before the 20th century" — Even today at the traditional Christian wedding ceremony, the woman is given away to the groom by her father. – Ray Butterworth Apr 14 '23 at 02:43
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Ancient Jewish and Israelite culture was both agrarian and patriarchal. Roman customs were less agrarian but extremely patriarchal to the point of misogynistic. Let us observe the following:

  • The ancient Israelite patriarchal society did not prevent women from inheriting property. Num 27:1-11, 36:1-12, Josh 17:3-6.
  • Women could be significant leaders, eg., Deborah. Judges 4.
  • Women could be prophets of God; eg, Miriam (Micah 6:4, Ex 15:20, 21), Deborah (Judges 4:4), Huldah (2 Kings 22:14-20), Isaiah’s wife (Isa 8:3), Anna (Luke 2:36), The four daughters of Phillip (Acts 21:8, 9), etc.
  • Women could buy and sell property. Prov 31:16.
  • Women could earn independent income and use it at their discretion. Prov 31:11, 16, 18, 20, Acts 16:12-15, 40.
  • Men were required to treat women and wives with great respect. In fact, they were to treat wives as Jesus would love them – enough to give His life for them. Eph 5:25.
  • A man could not divorce his wife on whim and marry another without being guilty of adultery. Matt 19:9 (very different from Roman law), Gen 2:24.
  • A man could not deprive his wife of marital privileges. 1 Cor 7:2-4. (The same was equally required of women.)
  • Paul had female co-workers in Euodia and Syntyche (Phil 4:2, 3) as well as Junia the apostle (Rom 16:7). Nympha appears to be the leader of the church that met in her house at Laodicea (Col 4:15). John also addressed an epistle to a female church leader (2 John 1).
  • In addition to the above, women could hold other offices such as deaconess or “minister” (Rom 16:1).
  • The New Testament church was specifically instructed to care for elderly women who could not support themselves . 1 Tim 5:9-13.
  • Women were allowed to teach men. The female leader, Priscilla taught the Apostle Apollos “more adequately”, Acts 18:26. It is significant that Priscilla is listed before her husband, Aquila, in this passage. King Lemuel was taught by his mother, Prov 31:1-9.
  • Women were permitted to pray and prophesy in public meetings, 1 Cor 11:5.
  • Gal 3:28 declares that all gender distinctions are out of place for the Christian congregation

There are numerous examples in the Bible of women being treated very badly, just as there are throughout history, even into modern times. This does not make such appalling behavior acceptable, according to the above ideals.

In the case of Jer 8:10, it was common practice for a conquering army to take women as slaves or even sex objects. God is not condoning this practice in Jer 8:10, simply saying that it would occur if Israel did not live up to the ideals the prophet is preaching.

That is, God is saying that if Israel continues to be disobedient, then fearful consequences will follow including dispossession of lands and human rights abuses, etc.

Dottard
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Women were indeed treated as a form of property when this prophecy is issued. See Sexual Property and the Personhood of Women in the Old Testament, New Testament and the Mishnah for more information. However the status of women was not the reason that the prophecy speaks of God as treating them that way. Rather, the prophecy should be understood in the context of prophetic warnings that God will give virtually everything in Judea to others. Fields will be taken by new owners, and invading armies will seize women and force them into sex slavery. In other passages the prophet speaks of men too becoming enslaved to a foreign powers as a result of Judah's sin. Jeremiah quotes God as saying he will kill his own people.

I will hand all Judah over to the king of Babylon, and he will take them away as exiles to Babylon and will kill them with the sword. (Jeremiah 20:4)

It cannot be denied that the prophecy is given primarily to Judah's men and that it treats women as their property. On the other hand, we should consider whether this treatment of women (and men) is actually an act of God or rather than consequence of Judah's sin. Indeed, later the chapter we get a glimpse into God's heart that seem very different from that of misogynistic vengeful deity who would tear women away from their husbands and give them to other men:

My sorrow is beyond healing, My heart is faint within me! 19 Behold, listen! The cry of the daughter of my people from a distant land: “Is the Lord not in Zion? Is her King not within her?” “Why have they provoked Me with their carved images, with foreign idols?” 20 “Harvest is past, summer is over, And we are not saved.” 21 I am broken over the brokenness of the daughter of my people. I mourn, dismay has taken hold of me. 22 Is there no balm in Gilead? Is there no physician there? Why then has not the health of the daughter of my people been restored?

In sum, the answer is yes to the main question: 'Were women viewed similar to property in the OT?' The prophecy is given to men, not women. But God's warning here should be understood in the context of prophetic tradition rather than a stern legalistic decree. The later part of the chapter reveals God's true heart in the matter. God's heart is broken and he seems to be praying for a way to heal his daughter's brokenness.

Dan Fefferman
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Yes. Women were considered property in the Old Testament.

One of the most obvious instances is the reasoning about rape.

If you rape another man's wife, the punishment is death. If you rape a virgin girl not engaged to any man, the punishment is that you are forced to marry her and never divorce her.

It shows that the rape of a married woman isn't really a violation against the woman herself as much as it is a violation of something that belongs to another man.

glob
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