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In the imperfect indicative in Hebrew is usually translated as future tense in English, but in Exodus 3:14 it is not translated "I will be what I will be" but "I am that I am." Why is that misleading term found in certain translations? So teachers say Jesus claimed to be I AM in John 8:58. But he didn't. Jesus answered the Pharisees honestly-He lived before Abraham, that's all. But they use that mistranslated OT statement to mislead-WHY?

Perry Webb
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  • Could you please add a link to the citation source of your premise "In the Hebrew written OT that statement translates-I will be what I will be" – grammaplow Mar 03 '23 at 10:11
  • Does this answer your question? https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/71516/how-should-the-hebrew-ehyeh-asher-ehyeh-in-exodus-314-be-translated-in-englis – Perry Webb Mar 03 '23 at 10:35
  • An example of "I am what I am" in Greek can be found in [1Cor 15:10]. Ex 3:14 in Greek LXX is "I am what is being" (or has happened). https://biblehub.com/interlinear/apostolic/exodus/3.htm – grammaplow Mar 03 '23 at 10:36
  • Also does this answer your question? https://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/84269/in-exodus-314-is-there-a-linguistic-relationship-between-the-tetragrammaton-and/122523#122523 – Perry Webb Mar 03 '23 at 10:50
  • Also related questions are here. https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/13459/what-did-jesus-likely-say-in-john-858/39133#39133 and https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60119/is-the-ego-eimi-i-am-in-john-858-and-john-828-the-same/60120#60120 and https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/60103/are-there-two-separate-reasons-given-for-wanting-to-stone-jesus/60123#60123 – Perry Webb Mar 03 '23 at 11:05

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