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The New Testament, being written in koine Greek or what I consider the language of the commoner on the street, poses an interesting question of how exactly would John's use of the word 'λογος' been understood by such folks unfamiliar with the white-collar-classical Greek of the philosophers. What would such a word have triggered in their thinking without the freighted/pregnant connotations the word carried in the minds of those more well read?

ed huff
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  • Ya, probably would've just meant 'word'. John continues to use 'logos' throughout his Gospel. There might be a word (haha) study already done on BH SE. Compare John 2:22 (closest use after prologue). "Then they believed the Scripture and the word that Jesus had spoken." – Only True God Dec 08 '22 at 17:56
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    Does THIS ANSWER help in your understanding of "logos"? – Biblasia Dec 08 '22 at 17:59
  • BH SE? Not sure what the abbreviation stands for. Thanks for getting back to me! I should take a closer look at all the occurrences of 'logos' in John's Gospel. – ed huff Dec 08 '22 at 18:57
  • @edhuff BH SE = Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange, the site you're on right now. ;) – Only True God Dec 08 '22 at 19:19
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    I dunno. Meme concepts of the philosopher class often enough make their way down to the more blue-collar folk. Either way, John seems to assume some education on the part of his readers in Old Testament narratives and/or the teachings of philosophers. – Austin Dec 08 '22 at 19:22
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    @Austin "and/or the teachings of philosophers" Where exactly do you see this? – Only True God Dec 08 '22 at 19:31

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