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In the New Testament, it seems as though Paul normally refers to the Father as "ho theos" and the Son as "kurios" particularly when the Father and Jesus appear in the same verse or context.

In Paul’s mind, in titles "theos" and "kurios" a religious context, both were two equal descriptions of deity. This is especially seen when one considers that the very term used to translate the Tetragrammaton (i.e., the Divine Name, "Yahweh", “LORD”) in LXX was kurios . Reformed theologian B. B. Warfield (1988: 220) comments on the way Paul used the two terms:

In the Text 1 Cor 8:6 BSB

yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.

If one argues that this proves that the Father alone is God, won't it also prove that Jesus alone is Lord?

However, doesn't that all disappear when we understand how Paul uses the terms?

Dottard
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Faith Mendel
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If we look back to the previous verse (1 Corinthians ch8 v5), we see that "one Lord" is a deliberate contrast with many lords, just as "One God" is a contrast with "many gods" (or "so-called" gods).

"For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth- as indeed there are many 'gods' and many 'lords'" 1 Corinthians ch8 v5 RSV

Perhaps it is best, in fact, to take "one God and one Lord" as a single contrast with "many gods and lords", indicating all the "so-called" spiritual powers of the world. The Lord Jesus Christ is being associated with the uniqueness of the Biblical God.

Stephen Disraeli
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