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Some Unitarians point to the indefinite rendering of the anarthrous pre-verbal PN in verses like John 8:44, John 9:8, John 9:17, John 10:13, John 18:37, John 4:19, John 8:48, John 10:1, John 10:33. Do these verses share the same structure as John 1:1? Is it true that the anarthrous pre-verbal PN should be rendered indefinitely? And if so, should that affect how we translate John 1:1?

curiousdannii
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Bob
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  • duplicate of the same questions on John 1:1 – Michael16 Sep 04 '22 at 08:24
  • @anne, This is not a duplicate question as it is specifically about the pre-verbal predicate nominative as opposed to the dative addressed in the linked questions. – Austin Sep 05 '22 at 08:02
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    John actually wrote 'And God was the logos'. Multiple arguments about English grammar, Greek grammar and translations between the two do not change what John actually wrote. The concept is glaringly obvious. I take it that this question is about this. The question is not clear as to what it is addressing. (In my view.) – Nigel J Sep 05 '22 at 12:35
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    @NigelJ It's misleading to use "actually" in such an equivocal way, since the English phrase "And God was the word" in that order can only be read as saying God is "the logos," wheras in Greek, where word order DOES NOT convey that same meaning (the Latin says "Deus erat Verbum," for the same reason) — word order matters in English, but not Greek or Latin (for example). So it's important to avoid words like "actually" or "literally" (where not explained or disambiguated) when talking about what someone "actually" wrote in another language (unless you disambiguate what you mean by the word). – Sola Gratia Sep 05 '22 at 19:48
  • @SolaGratia Word order does matter in Greek. There is emphasis to word order and there is meaning conveyed by it. '... and God was the logos.' is what is on the page. – Nigel J Sep 06 '22 at 08:31
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    I know that I meant it doesn't matter as it does in English, where there are rigid rules, as above. "And God was the Logos" is a mistranslation of "και θεος ην ο λογος" was my point, not that the word order is god, was, the, word. Those are very important distinctions. – Sola Gratia Sep 06 '22 at 20:56

1 Answers1

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The matter of whether a noun is definite or not in the pre-verbal and post verb positions is covered by "Colwell's Rule" of Greek grammar which is stated in Wallace's "Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics", page 257 as follows:

"Definite predicate nouns which precede the verb usually lack the article ... a predicate nominative which precedes the verb cannot be translated as an indefinite or a 'qualitative' noun solely because of the absence of the article; if the context suggests that the predicate is definite, it should be translated as a definite noun ..."

See the GGBB (and its warning about how this has been misunderstood) and the appendix below for more information.

Without providing a detailed analysis of all the OP's verses (which would exceed available space here) suffice to say that all obey Colwell's rule where it applies. Many of these verses contain more than one clause and so more definite information might be needed to answer more specific structures.

Indeed, John 1:1 has three clauses and only the final clause has a pre-verbal predicate: καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος = "and the word was God";not "god or a god because it must be definite according to Colwell's rule.

APPENDIX - Pre-verbal Predicate and Colwell's rule.

The following quote is taken from an article by the esteemed NT linguist and editor, Bruce Metzger found here >> http://www.bible-researcher.com/metzger.jw.html

Some years ago Dr. Ernest Cadman Colwell of the University of Chicago pointed out in a study of the Greek definite article that, “A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb. … The opening verse of John’s Gospel contains one of the many passages where this rule suggests the translation of a predicate as a definite noun. The absence of the article [before θεος] does not make the predicate indefinite or qualitative when it precedes the verb; it is indefinite in this position only when the context demands it. The context makes no such demand in the Gospel of John, for this statement cannot be regarded as strange in the prologue of the gospel which reaches its climax in the confession of Thomas [John 20:28, ‘My Lord and my God’].”

In a lengthy Appendix in the Jehovah’s Witnesses’ translation, which was added to support the mistranslation of John 1:1, there are quoted thirty-five other passages in John where the predicate noun has the definite article in Greek. 20 These are intended to prove that the absence of the article in John 1:1 requires that θεος must be translated “a god.” None of the thirty-five instances is parallel, however, for in every case the predicate noun stands after the verb, and so, according to Colwell’s rule, properly has the article. So far, therefore, from being evidence against the usual translation of John 1:1, these instances add confirmation to the full enunciation of the rule of the Greek definite article.

Alex Balilo
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Dottard
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