In Revelation 3:21, we read the following (NKJV, emphasis added):
To him who overcomes I will grant to sit with Me on My throne, as I also overcame and sat down with My Father on His throne.
In the translations I've read, this is spoken of in the past tense. Of course, I see that the Greek uses the aorist tense. Since I'm not as knowledgable about this non-English tense, I'm wondering: Would the aorist tense prove Jesus' enthronement has already happened, as would our English past tense?
Note: My question is not about other passages but whether this verse specifically is sufficient to determine when Jesus was seated on the throne, given this verse's use of the aorist tense. To the extent that our English translations place Jesus' seating in the past through use of the past tense, would the original Greek's aorist tense likewise place Jesus' enthronement in the past here?