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Of what exactly does the perfection that Matthew 5:48 (KJV) speaks consist when it says:

Be ye therefore perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect.

I ask because in Hebrews 4:15 (KJV) it says,

For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

I read this to mean that Jesus is both touched by the feelings of our infirmities and yet without sin. It seems that sinlessness does not exclude one from temptation.

It was the case with Adam and Eve in Eden before the fall, and, it was the case with Lucifer in heaven before he fell. God said after creation week that everything He had made was good and He says of Lucifer in Ezekiel 28:15 (KJV)

Thou wast perfect in thy ways from the day that thou wast created, till iniquity was found in thee.

Or, as Ellen G. White put it in the Seventh Day Adventists Bible Commentary (vol. 5, Chapt. 3, p. 1132.8):

Angelic perfection failed in heaven. Human perfection failed in Eden, the paradise of bliss.

This leads me to ask "what does perfect really mean then?" because the simple answer 'sinlessness' doesn't seem to be the perfect answer...(pun intended!)

curiousdannii
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    It is worth considering the word 'consistent' in relation to 'perfection'. 'Walk before me,' said the Lord to Abraham,'and be ye perfect' is a matter of being consistent to the One before Whose eyes one walks. Consistency of behaviour, speech, relationships, aspirations. Not walking a crooked path, this way then that. But straight. Consistent. Some make an impossible legal burden out of such texts. And they should not do so. Up-voted +1 and an answer possibly forthcoming, based on this comment. – Nigel J Mar 24 '22 at 10:24
  • @NigelJ Thanks for pointing out the use of the word consistent. I am not sure though I understand what you mean by the Uo-voted +1 etc. in your answer. I am new to the site and don't yet understand how everything works. –  Mar 24 '22 at 10:29
  • I've updated your question to be a little more in line with "best practices" in the sense that: 1.) I tracked down the actual author and original source of the passage you were using from Signs of the Times. 2.) I've also included the actual passages you reference, as this is generally preferred, 3.) and included the passage ref. in the title to make it more searchable. Finally, I have used the KJV as it seemed to be the text you were working out of. If this is not the case, feel free to update or if you feel this no longer reflects the spirit of your question, you can revert the changes. – James Shewey Mar 24 '22 at 14:40
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    @JamesShewey Thanks! I really appreciate it. This serves as an example to me for future reference. –  Mar 24 '22 at 15:59
  • You may also find these helpful: https://hermeneutics.meta.stackexchange.com/a/803/4150 https://hermeneutics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/536/what-does-show-your-work-mean-in-the-context-of-exegesis https://hermeneutics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3248/what-is-the-anatomy-of-a-good-bh-se-answer – James Shewey Mar 24 '22 at 22:35

2 Answers2

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This question involves the meaning of the much misunderstood (and sometimes mis-translated) word, τέλειος (teleios). BDAG provides four basic meanings of this adjective:

  1. pertaining to meeting the highest standard, eg, James 1:4, 17, 25, 1 John 4:18, Heb 9:11, Rom 12:2, 1 Cor 13:10, etc.
  2. pertaining to being mature, full-grown, mature, adult, eg, Eph 4:13, 1 Cor 14:30, Heb 5:14, 1 Cor 2:6, etc.
  3. pertaining to being a cult initiate, initiated, eg, Phil 3:15, Col 1:28.
  4. pertaining to being fully developed in a moral sense, perfect, fully developed, eg, James 3:2, Matt 19:21, 5:48, James 1:4, Col 4;12, etc.

Matt 5:48 is almost impossible to translate without giving the wrong connotation. Most just give something like:

Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect.

As written this is impossible because we cannot be perfect as God is perfect, so we must seek a more nuanced meaning which provided by two sources:

Context

Jesus' teaching here is about loving one's enemies (V38-47), therefore, we conclude that this is commanding Jesus' followers to love their enemies and those that hate you just as the Father loves all people - we are to be as morally mature as God is kind and loving to all people.

Parallel in Luke 6:27-36

In the parallel passage recorded by Luke, we have him concluding Jesus' teaching with this:

(V36) Be merciful, just as your Father is merciful.

That is, "be perfect" (Matthew) is equivalent to "be merciful" (Luke).

Thus, while sounding like a prolix, I would translate Matt 5:48 as:

Be as morally mature and kind/merciful as your Father in heaven is morally kind/merciful.

That is, we are to love our enemies as we love our neighbors. This point was made again when Jesus told the parable of the Good Samaritan. Jesus taught this in many other ways:

  • Love as Jesus loved. John 13:34, 35, 15:12, 1 John 4:8, 11, 19, Eph 5:1, 2.
  • Lay down life for friends. John 15:13, Eph 5:2.
  • Because Jesus was persecuted, so are His followers. John 15:20, 21.
  • Forgive as Jesus forgave. Matt 6:12, 14, 15, 18:35, Eph 4:32, Col 3:13.
  • Be imitators of God. Eph 5:1.
  • Be holy as Jesus is holy. Lev 11:44, 45, 1 Peter 1:15, 16.
  • Be pure as He is pure. 1 John 3:3.
  • Pray as Jesus prayed. Luke 11:1.
  • Be kind because God is kind. Luke 6:34, 35.
  • Be merciful because God is merciful. Luke 6:36.
  • Be servants to others as Jesus was. John 13:15-17, 1 Peter 4:11b, Matt 20:24-28.
  • Be patient as Jesus was patient. 1 Tim 1:16.
  • Talk/speak as Jesus speaks. 1 Peter 4:11a.
Dottard
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  • @AndriesStander - that is the way some have explained it on the basis of relative maturity. While I do not believe that is wrong, I prefer to see this as part of the broader doctrine of the imitation of Christ about which I have added a sampler in my question. – Dottard Mar 24 '22 at 11:04
  • Does it sound like I am hearing you when I say that Matt. 5:48 should then rather read something like, Be ye therefore perfect in your sphere as your Father is in His sphere? It makes me think of the 'typology of forgiveness' of Daniel 9:24-27 that I believe Jesus refers to when He says to Peter to forgive 70x7. In essence Jesus is saying to Peter, Look at how God is dealing with the sin problem (middle of the last week of Dan. 9:24 ends in the cross) and find forgiveness for other's sins in My forginess of yours... –  Mar 24 '22 at 11:11
  • Many years ago I had heard that there was funny business going on with the word "perfect" in the Bible. It wasn't until a few years ago when I started trying to learn Latin and Greek, that I really understood - the thing that made it click was "perfect tense" being a completed action in English, and seeing how this was originally how the word was used, not only in English but in lots of languages, including Greek's version of the word. – Nacht Mar 31 '22 at 00:40
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Perfection is not something mankind can achieve. It will be accomplished/finished, for those who are Christ's, when he returns.

Another aspect of perfection is completion.

For it was fitting for Him (God), for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect (or finish) the originator of their salvation (Jesus) through sufferings. Heb 2:10

Although He was a Son, he learned obedience from the things which he suffered. 9And having been perfected, he became the source of eternal salvation for all those who obey him Heb 5:8

Mankind is destined from before creation to suffer and to experience sin and through salvation in Jesus, be finally made complete and without sin. As you have pointed out - having sinlessness does not ensure an eternal continuance. By experiencing the horrors of sin, man will be set against it and never go there again.

No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him; and he cannot keep on sinning, because he has been born of God. 1John 3:19

This too looks forward to the time of Jesus' return and the change that will take place to make believers immortal and forever with the Lord and God.

Dear friends, now we are children of God, and what we will be has not yet been made known. But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. 1John 3:2

All creation will have opportunity to be completed - made perfect, but only through Christ. His journey of suffering and completion is a type for all men. He succeeded where all others have failed because he loved and trusted in his God

During the days of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission. Heb 5:7

His sinlessness did not make him complete, it was necessary so he could be the perfect, unblemished sacrifice. But he could only be the perfect sacrifice if he remained true to his Father and his Father's will up to the during the crucifixion - being tempted, yet without sin.

Matthew 5:48 speaks of this perfection that will be achieved by fiat, but learned by the living out of humility, service and worship once God places His spirit in us. Our new lives (with the spirit deposit) are analogous to the "days of Jesus’ life on earth" as he struggled to live out God's will for him. He receiving his change into spirit and immortality at his resurrection - as believers also will.

Perfection is not our goal - it is God's goal in Christ, and as Jesus expressed, we are to live according to God's will in a repentant and humble attitude knowing but for grace - expressed through Jesus, we would never have a life after this no matter how hard we might try.

Steve
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  • Thanks Steve. You say perfection will be completed for those who are Christ's at His return. What exactly do you mean with 'for' and how does your view of perfection relate to the freedom of choice which will always be ours even after sin has been dealt with seeing it was this freedom to choose that led to sin in the first place? –  Mar 24 '22 at 10:57
  • You would have to define "freedom to choose". We do not have this 'freewill' in a deceived state. How can we 'choose' if we do not comprehend what is of God, when we do not know He even exists? His spirit enables a change in us we cannot do for ourselves, but this change will not be perfected/completed until Jesus returns. Once the change is effected it will be permanent as the 1John verses express. only then do we have the freewill to reject sin. – Steve Mar 24 '22 at 11:02
  • If it is impossible to achieve, then the commands becomes either dishonest or sarcastic. – Michael16 Mar 24 '22 at 16:01