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I am not a Hebrew nor Greek student so I need some help here. As I'm studying in biblical resources, it "appears" to me that there could be a diffence between the two texts. Is this correct? What is the understanding of

4:6 (LXX 3:23) ὃς ἀποκαταστήσει καρδίαν πατρὸς πρὸς υἱὸν καὶ καρδίαν ἀνθρώπου πρὸς τὸν πλησίον αὐτοῦ μὴ ἔλθω καὶ πατάξω τὴν γῆν ἄρδην

alb
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This can be confusing because the chapter and verse numbering is different between English Bibles, the MT and LXX. The English verse Mal. 6:4 is somewhat different between MT and LXX, and the LXX has an extra verse after 6:4. The translations of the MT and LXX follow the texts.

And he will turn the hearts of fathers to their children and the hearts of children to their fathers, lest I come and strike the land with a decree of utter destruction.” (Mal. 4:6, ESV)

וְהֵשִׁ֤יב לֵב־אָבוֹת֙ עַל־בָּנִ֔ים וְלֵ֥ב בָּנִ֖ים עַל־אֲבוֹתָ֑ם פֶּן־אָב֕וֹא וְהִכֵּיתִ֥י אֶת־הָאָ֖רֶץ חֵֽרֶם׃ (Mal. 3:24, MT)

He shall reconcile parents with children and children with their parents, so that, when I come, I do not strike the whole land with utter destruction. (Mal 3:24, JPS Tanakh)

23 ὃς ἀποκαταστήσει καρδίαν πατρὸς πρὸς υἱὸν καὶ καρδίαν ἀνθρώπου πρὸς τὸν πλησίον αὐτοῦ, μὴ ἔλθω καὶ πατάξω τὴν γῆν ἄρδην. 24 μνήσθητε νόμου Μωυσῆ τοῦ δούλου μου, καθότι ἐνετειλάμην αὐτῷ ἐν Χωρηβ πρὸς πάντα τὸν Ισραηλ προστάγματα καὶ δικαιώματα. (Mal. 3:23–24, LXX)

who will restore the heart of a father to a son and the heart of a person to his neighbor, lest I should come and strike the land entirely. 6 “Remember the law of my servant Moses, as I commanded him in Horeb with all Israel, with commandments and decrees.” -- The Lexham English Septuagint (Second Edition, Mal. 4:5–6). (2020). Lexham Press.

Perry Webb
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  • Thanks Perry but I don't read Hebrew or Greek. Here's what I've been looking at as a translation of the verse, "who shall turn again the heart of the father to the son, and the heart of a man to his neighbour, lest I come and smite the earth grievously". Looks fundementally different to me, ie singular father and son and then man to neighbor. – alb Jan 11 '22 at 23:43
  • @Alb glad you pointed that out. I read it too quickly. – Perry Webb Jan 11 '22 at 23:56
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    @alb rather than doing a quick translation, I quoted English translations after the texts that were more carefully made. – Perry Webb Jan 12 '22 at 00:10
  • Thanks Perry this is a good answer. +1. This makes sense to me, ie that the Hebrew oriented translation opts for a famillial understanding as some commentaries allude, where there is some family dispute that needs to be resolved. However, when we understand the entire context of Malachi, the LXX translation seems to fit better where the verse seems to speak of the gospel (love your neighbor as yourself). – alb Jan 12 '22 at 00:17
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    Actually that originates from Leviticus 19:18b: "Love your fellow as yourself: I am the LORD." (JPS) – Perry Webb Jan 12 '22 at 00:53
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    See https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/54406/who-is-my-neighbor/60438#60438 – Perry Webb Jan 12 '22 at 00:54
  • I agree - good answer. – Dottard Jan 12 '22 at 06:02