The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

Question

2:7  τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται

2 THESSALONIANS 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is taken out of the way.

There is already a question asking ‘who’ the ’he’ is, and I am aware that there is much historical and current debate over this.

But, I’d like to take a step back and ask …. how do the translators get ‘he’?

Answer 1

το γαρ μυστηριον ηδη ενεργειται της ανομιας μονον ο κατεχων αρτι εως εκ μεσου γενηται [2 Thess 2:7 TR (undisputed) Beza, Stephanus, Elzevir and Scrivener all identical]

The literal reading of this (partly taken from the Englishman's Greek New Testament of 1870) gives :

For the mystery already is working the iniquity only who restrains at present until out of midst he be.

The mystery is already working.

But there is one who restrains (himself) at present.

Until, out of the midst, he becomes apparent.

Translators have misunderstood the concept. They have followed one another in thinking that there is outside restraint which, once it is exerted fully, results in the complete ejection of the party under consideration.

The literal Greek does not support that concept.

There is one in the midst who works iniquity anonymously, showing restraint.

But there will come a time when that iniquity will make itself, personally, known - and he will already be in the midst. (Not external.)

This agrees very precisely with what John sees in vision of the last times, regarding the sea-beast and the harlot and the earth-beast and the making of an image and the global acceptance of an entity which works within humanity yet remains unknown until the very end . . . .

. . . . . when it becomes horribly apparent just who it was who was gathering the nations into one 'glorious' unity to raise up a 'utopia' and all under the deception that God (supposedly) in Christ (supposedly returned to earth) was the instigator of the process.

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Note added after comment :

The 'who' is genderless and on reflection I think that gives emphasis to the 'who' being identified as 'iniquity'. The iniquity works by an agency (which is a person) but the inquity itself is conspicuous - more so than the 'restrained' individual.

Once they cease to restrain and appear, already there - in the midst - the person will be apparent. But until then it is 'iniquity' that is manifested and the genderless 'who' is yet to come.

Answer 2

There is no personal pronoun in 2 Thessalonians 2:

7 τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται

Let's look at the genders:

For the mystery [neuter] of lawlessness [feminine] is already at work; only He who now restrains

the [one who]
ὁ (ho)
Article - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's 3588: The, the definite article. Including the feminine he, and the neuter to in all their inflections; the definite article; the.

restrains [it]
κατέχων (katechōn)
Verb - Present Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Singular
Strong's 2722: From kata and echo; to hold down, in various applications.

Let X be the implied subject.

How do the translators get ‘he’ from X?

We know that X is not referring to the mystery [neuter] or to the lawlessness [feminine]. We also know that X is the masculine subject/actor for the verb restrains or holds down. It is reasonable to assume that X is not a thing or it. So 'he' is a reasonable translation here.

now restrains will do so until he is taken out of the way.

he is taken
γένηται (genētai)
Verb - Aorist Subjunctive Middle - 3rd Person Singular
Strong's 1096: A prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb; to cause to be, i.e. to become, used with great latitude.

This Greek word is only two Greek words away from the article. Due to referent proximity, it is probably referring to what the masculine article implies. That's why translators use 'he' here as well.

In any case, a more faithful and conservative rendering is the following:

For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; but the one who now restrains will do so until it is taken out of the way.

This way, I can avoid the gendered pronouns.

Why Paul didn’t use a pronoun?

Unlike Greek, English articles and verbs do not have gender declensions, so we have to articulate the gender in the form of its pronoun explicitly. However, implied pronouns by the Greek article and verbs were standard practices by the NT writers. They didn't have to write out the pronoun. Paul probably thought that he was obviously talking about a 'he' when he wrote this verse. This bears out among the sentiments in https://biblehub.com/2_thessalonians/2-7.htm; 20 out of 27 versions use the pronoun 'he'.

Answer 3

I just wrote on this subject, then got the idea to see if there was anyone else commenting on this very question, and I found you all. Here is how I see it from what I just finished writing:

Going back to 2 Thes. 2:6-7, reviewing the original Greek to the King James Version translation, there arises a problem with the pronoun “He” as used between the two different versions. The verses are first given as found as written, then I will add a modifier clearly stating who the pronoun is referring to. The object of verses 3b-4, which is the revealing of the “Son of Perdition” is the him and he is referring to in the verses below.

Greek Transliteration to English from: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/2_thessalonians/2-7.htm

⁶ And now that which is restraining you know, for to be revealed him in his time. ⁷ The for mystery already is working of lawlessness; only [there is] the [one] restraining [it] at present, until out of [the] midst he might be [gone]

KJV:

⁶ And now ye know what withholdeth, that he might be revealed in his time.
⁷ For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he who now letteth will let, until he be taken out of the way.

There is NO pronoun used for the Restrainer in verse 7 of the Greek, so the pronoun “he” at the end of verse 7 still is referring to the “son of perdition’s” revealing – “until out of [the] midst HE might be [gone]” in Greek. Then there was translated in the KJV where the HE was added before “who now letteth will let”, which now makes the next HE read as if the HE is now the Restrainer also, in “he be taken out of the way”. The original HE still stands in the meaning given in God’s word and a faulty translation cannot change any interpretation of what God said through Paul.

So to clarify the meaning as written in the KJV I will state who is meant after each pronoun his or he.

⁶ And now ye know what witholdeth, that he [the Son of Perdition] might be revealed in his [son of perdition] time. ⁷ For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he [restrainer] who now letteth will let, until he [son of perdition] be taken out of the way. “Or a better reading might be “until removed from of the midst” that he [son of perdition] might be gone” or [cast down].

“Cast down” comes from my view that Satan is the ‘son of perdition’ of verses 3 and 4 and refers back to the battle in the heavens found in Rev. 12:7-13 between 'Michael the archangel as the Restrainer' and Satan. Also refers to Daniel 11:45 – 12:1-2 & 11 because 2Thes. 2:4 describes the Abomination of Desolation, which is also the Time of Jacobs Trouble.

Answer 4

The little pronoun that solved the mystery of the "He" in verses 4-7.

2 Thessalonians 2:1-8 KJV

¹ Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him, ² That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand. ³ Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition; ⁴ Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he [man of sin] as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he [man of sin] is God. ⁵ Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things? ⁶ And now ye know what withholdeth [holds back coming of Jesus] that he [man of sin] might be revealed in his time. ⁷ For the mystery of iniquity doth already work: only he [man of sin] who now letteth will let, until he [man of sin] be taken out of the way. (notice that it is Jesus who takes the man of sin out of the way which proves that the "HE" of verse 7 is the man of sin.) ⁸ And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy [taken out of the way] with the brightness of his coming: [to gather up the church].

The pronoun he refers back to the last noun. The last noun was the man of sin. Paul told them that the coming of Jesus to gather up the church will not happen until the falling away and the man of sin is revealed. Nobody is holding back the revealing but the man of sin himself, or until God's appointed time. Why would Paul answer one worry, and then give them another mystery to worry about?

Answer 5

The "he" in 2.Thess 2:7 is a masculine article, that refers to a person previously mentioned. It can be only the Antichrist, who hinders the coming of the Lord (verses 1-5). Verse 6 Paul said, "now you know" how do they know, that the coming (parousia) and the Rapture is not at hand, imminent. Because there is an Hindrance, the falling away AND the revealing of the Antichrist has to come first ean me.. protos is a fixed structure, that cannot be changed (Mark 3:27). Now we know hopefully, what hinders the coming of the Lord, the subject of verse 1, that the AC has to come first, before the Lord can come. If the AC is what hinders the coming of the Lord in verse 3, he is also the one who hinders now, because he is in prison in the midst of the earth in the bottomless pit (Rev 17:8) and will be released in his time by God. It is all about the AC, if we know, when he is revealed, we know also the time of the Rapture. He will continue to hinder(it=coming of the Lord), until he comes or goes out of the midst(his prison) and than he will be revealed.

Answer 6

All this confusion has been generated by the New King James translation putting Capital "He" in place of just "he" as the original King James did. This has caused great confusion so that people think "He" is referring to the Holy Spirit. Notice in the context that the Holy Spirit has nowhere been mentioned. Verse 3 first tells us that the man of sin is the one to be revealed. Verse 6 further emphasizes the same and says what withholdeth. Verse 8 removes all doubt about who is revealed and destroyed or taken out of the way. When the only true Jesus comes as lightening shining from east to west (verse 8 the brightness of his coming or glorious appearing as in Titus 2:13) the false or wicked son of perdition is revealed or exposed. Note that withholdeth, letteth, and let are all the same Greek word katecho. Satin has always been the adversary since the Garden of Eden and will continue to deceive! To properly understand (katecho) one has to realize what is meant to impede or hinder in the Old English of the 17th century. Today in our English it means to give permission or permit. Much more later.