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the righteousness of God in him. 2nd Corinthians 5:21 (KJV)

I have not found a sufficient examination on this site for the true interpretation of this verse. I read my Russian bible primarily and it says this:

Ибо не знавшего греха Он сделал для нас [жертвою за] грех, чтобы мы в Нем сделались праведными пред Богом. 2-е Коринфянам 5:21 (Russian Synodal Version)

Here it states in brackets, that is added for context and further meaning, that Jesus was a "sin offering". I don't know Greek, but the word ἁμαρτίαν (hamartia G266) seems to mean "committing an offence". From what I understand, the Russian Synodal Version and KJV both used Textus Receptus. Theologically I agree with "sin offering" and always have. I am disappointed in the way that the English and western translations have translated it.

The latter part of the verse also differs but that can be made into a different question entirely ("made the righteousness of God in Him" vs. "in Him made righteous before God").

Which one translation is correct?

curiousdannii
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Coder909
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  • ( https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/13901/what-is-the-correct-translation-of-ἁμαρτίαν-in-2-corinthians-521-what-did-god ) – Dave Jan 22 '21 at 19:37

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