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I read about the Law of Moses, mentioned in Luke 2:22, and it seems to imply that birth is a sin. Looking it up, the bible study resource I found referenced Leviticus 12:1-8. The relevant sections are Leviticus 12:5, "When the days of her purification for a son or daughter are over, she is to bring to the priest at the entrance to the tent of meeting a year-old lamb for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a dove for a sin offering" and also Leviticus 12:8, "But if she cannot afford a lamb, she is to bring two doves or two young pigeons, one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering. In this way the priest will make atonement for her, and she will be clean."

In Leviticus, the Law of Moses calls for a sin offering to make atonement for giving birth, along with a burnt offering. Does this part of the bible imply that birth was a type of sin?

Tristan Beckwith
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  • This is quite a broad question covering the whole matter of how sin entered the world and how sin is passed from one generation to another. The act of giving birth is not a sin. The question is about sin itself, how it came to be and how it persists.This is a very broad question indeed. – Nigel J Mar 03 '20 at 05:39
  • This appears to me to be a duplicate of https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/375/is-leviticus-12-saying-that-giving-birth-to-a-child-is-a-sin?rq=1 and/or https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/8457/why-would-mary-and-joseph-offer-turtle-doves-in-luke-224?rq=1 – Ruminator Mar 03 '20 at 21:52
  • The first answer at the first link has a very clear explanation about sin offerings. – Tristan Beckwith Mar 03 '20 at 22:09

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