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And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that you tell us whether (the word "whether" denotes which of two), (1) You are the Christ/Messiah and (2) the Son of God."

So my question is why would the high priest Caiaphas ask Jesus if He was the Son of God?

Mr. Bond
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  • Where do you get the idea that Jews consider themselves sons of God? I hope it’s not Psalm 82 where it says they will die like men, because men already die so clear these were not men. – Nihil Sine Deo Dec 16 '19 at 23:18
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    Thank you for your question. I meant that the Jews consider themselves "sons of God" in a "generic" or general sense. God said that Israel was His son. At Jeremiah 31:9, God says "I am a Father to Israel. And no, I was not referencing Psalm 82:6. How about I do this and delete the part that says, "since the Jews consider themselves sons of God as well? So here's the question? "Why would the Jews ask Jesus if He was the Son of God? – Mr. Bond Dec 17 '19 at 00:22
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  • It is the High Priest who is 'adjuring', and the question is : Did the High Priest have any authority to 'adjure'. 2. The question is : what OT scriptures make it clear that the Messiah will be Divine ? Thus if Jesus of Nazareth (or anyone else) claims to be Messiah, they are also, automatically, claiming divinity.
  • – Nigel J Dec 17 '19 at 11:19
  • The High Priest uses Strong 1844 ἐξορκίζω. The demonic spirit 'adjures' in Mark 5:7 using Strong 3726 ὁρκίζω, a very similar word. – Nigel J Dec 17 '19 at 19:08
  • Where are you getting the phrase 'which of these two' at Matthew 26:63? The terms 'the Messiah' and 'the Son of God' are here being used synonymously. No translation I have read (just read 16 of them) translates it that way. They all treat it as a question of whether Jesus is the Messiah, also known as the Son of God. – Only True God May 21 '21 at 04:26