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Some say that the Greek word "πορνεία", "porneia", means sexual immorality in general, while others say that the word only describes sex outside of marriage. In the following passages, where the word is translated as "fornication", does "porneia" refer to sexual immorality in general, or to fornication only? And if it is sexual immorality in general, then what does that entail?

Matthew 5:32 KJV — But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Matthew 19:9 KJV — And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Acts 15:29 KJV — That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well.

1 Corinthians 5:1 KJV — It is reported commonly that there is fornication among you, and such fornication as is not so much as named among the Gentiles, that one should have his father's wife.

1 Corinthians 6:18 KJV — Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.

Colossians 3:5 KJV — Mortify therefore your members which are upon the earth; fornication, uncleanness, inordinate affection, evil concupiscence, and covetousness, which is idolatry:

1 Thessalonians 4:3 KJV — For this is the will of God, even your sanctification, that ye should abstain from fornication:

1 Corinthians 5:1 suggests that incest was also called "porneia", making it mean more than mere fornication.

How was the word used in literature before the New Testament, namely in the Septuagint and in pagan Greek literature, if this information is accessible?

Thank you.

elika kohen
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CMK
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    This question is probably not a good fit for this site, being too general. Perhaps if you can connect it to a particular passage/verse where you consider the meaning of πορνεία is unclear, then it might have some value for hermeneutic investigation. – enegue Jul 26 '18 at 04:32
  • @enegue Why would I need to connect it to a particular passage? – CMK Jul 27 '18 at 03:26
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    @CMK From the Help Center: Questions that do not arise from a Biblical text are off-topic unless they are about hermeneutical approaches. – Alex Jul 27 '18 at 16:06
  • @CMK To answer your question as to why do we need to connect to a particular passage; it's because the context has a huge bearing on the interpretation. For example, if you ask the question above because you're curious about Christ's comments on divorce, then to answer that question a person may need to go back to Deuteronomy to give you a complete answer. – alb Jul 27 '18 at 17:19
  • @CMK I upvoted your question, because it is an interesting point and it looks like you have done some research already. Personally, I don't think you need to restrict yourself to a specific passage. It might, however, be worth editing your question to define the scope of your word study. Are we talking about the πορνεια as used in the New Testament only, or are we also examining its use in the Septuagint as well? Do we care how the word is used in secular Greek writings, or only biblically? – Pascal's Wager Jul 27 '18 at 18:24
  • @Alex Thanks, Alex, for that explanation. I will reference some passages. – CMK Jul 28 '18 at 14:27
  • @alb Thanks. I will reference some passages. – CMK Jul 28 '18 at 14:28
  • @Pascal'sWager Thank you for upvoting my question and for mentioning the Septuagint and secular Greek writings. I was, in essence, looking for how the word was used in the times before the New Testament. – CMK Jul 28 '18 at 14:30
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    Words don't have meaning apart from context. Words don't have meaning, authors do. Words have "usages". And just because a word is used one way in Matthew 5:32 does NOT at all indicate that the author has the same meaning in mind in 1 Corinthians 5:1. So please pick one verse for your inquiry. You are touching on an important question but not one that this site can address properly without a particular passage in mind. Matthew, Luke and Paul all use words to different ends! – Ruminator Jul 28 '18 at 16:23
  • Also: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/274/does-the-meaning-of-%cf%80%ce%bf%cf%81%ce%bd%ce%b5%ce%af%ce%b1-include-premarital-sex-in-1-corinthians-5-7 – elika kohen Sep 13 '20 at 23:28

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The English word “pornography” comes from the Greek word porneia. The essential meaning of porneia is sexual perversion or illicit sexual intercourse. In Greek literature around the same time as the New Testament, porneia was used to refer to fornication, prostitution, incest, and idolatry. It is used 25 times in the New Testament, most often translated "fornication." The meaning of porneia in the New Testament seems to be the general concept of sexual perversion. Other Greek words are used to refer to specific forms of sexual perversion, such as adultery (as in Matthew 5:32; 19:9). The incident in 1 Corinthians 5:1 is about a man who was having sexual relations with his father’s wife.

The KJV translates Strong's G4202 as ‘fornication’ 26 times. It is also used to cover illicit sexual intercourse in general. The following link gives a detailed description of how ‘porneia’ is used in the New Testament: https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?t=kjv&strongs=g4202

Here is a partial quote from a Greek Encyclopedia:

“The Greek word porneia refers to prostitution, with the related terms porne and pornos referring to female and male prostitutes, respectively. In ancient Athens prostitution was legal and was taxed, although it was considered both illegal and shameful for freeborn citizens. Thus, in seeking to discredit a rival, the Athenian orator and politician Apollodorus charged his enemy's partner Neaira with being a porne (c. 340s bce; Demosthenes, Against Neaira). In another famous case Aeschines prosecuted his opponent Timarchus for prostitution, arguing that a man who sold his body for profit could never be trusted with the affairs of the city (c. 346–345 bce; Aeschines, Against Timarchus).

Porneia thus had a decidedly negative connotation, and expressions such as pornes huios ("son of a whore") were used as pointed slurs. In the moralizing literature of the first and second centuries ce, men were warned not to squander their inheritance on pornai and were condemned as licentious (akolasia) if they overindulged in trips to the brothel... Porneia was and continues to be a widely applied loaded term that is as useful for slandering various targets as for describing a social and economic practice.”

Source: https://www.encyclopedia.com/social-sciences/encyclopedias-almanacs-transcripts-and-maps/porneia

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Lesley
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  • You seem to be arguing that it means any kind of sexual deviation but the proof you cite says that it is prostitution. ? – Ruminator Jul 29 '18 at 21:59
  • I'm not making any argument. I am merely quoting different sources in an attempt to help the asker of the question come to some sort of answer. I think the jury is still out on this one. Secular sources will present a different view to biblical sources. Whether porneia is sexual deviation and/or prostitution, all I know is that Christians should abide by God's rules for sexual morality. – Lesley Jul 30 '18 at 09:26
  • Thank you for your detailed answer. Do you think that this definition would include something like rape, for example? – CMK Jul 31 '18 at 17:48
  • Given rape is violence done to another person, then the perpetrator who has defiled the victim by sexual abuse is guilty of perversion and illicit sexual conduct. They have deviated from God's moral code. Porneia might well apply, but I'm not a Greek expert! – Lesley Aug 01 '18 at 08:57
  • @CMK – I have also upvoted your question and I sincerely hope it won’t be closed. – Lesley Aug 01 '18 at 09:06
  • @Lesley Thank you. It does seem like "porneia" would apply to rape. However, the question would be answered beyond dispute if a document could be produced where a person clearly calls rape "porneia". Until then, I suppose that we can only speculate. Thank you for upvoting my question. – CMK Aug 02 '18 at 16:23