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If Jesus was the first created, as some people claim, surely the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ would have been used instead – or is my information incorrect? I do not pretend to understand Greek and so I seek clarity and insight into the meaning and differences of ‘prototokos’ and ‘protoktistos’ and whether the latter Greek word literally means “first created” or not.

I am not asking about the meaning of the phrase ‘prōtotokos pasēs ktiseōs’ because that subject has already been addressed in other questions.

My question is: **does the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ mean “first created”?#

Linked to that, a secondary question is: if it does, is that Greek word ever applied to Christ Jesus?**

Previous questions on the subject of the Greek word translated into English as "firstborn" do not deal with the Greek word ‘protoktistos.’ It's a different Greek word and all I want to know is, can it be translated into English as 'first created'?

Clearly, my question is unclear. I will now go back to the drawing board and rethink the whole topic.

Lesley
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    Good question - this is just to point out that the Tag '1-corinthians' ought to be 'colossians'. – Anne Jun 14 '18 at 15:40
  • Thanks - I'm still trying to navigate my way round this site! – Lesley Jun 14 '18 at 15:43
  • Please try to ask one question and only one question at a time. Your question in the title does not jive with the question in the last line of your question. Just split the question up rather than bunching several questions into one question. – Ruminator Jun 14 '18 at 17:54
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    How is this question different than https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/27865/what-does-the-word-prototokos-mean-in-colossians-115/27870#27870 – Perry Webb Jun 14 '18 at 20:29
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    'Tokos' is usury (See Strong or Young). So prototokos is the first return on an investment. It may refer to a firstborn child - the first fruit of the marriage union. But the usage in scripture obliges a translator to include the idea of 'usury' within the translation. 'First Token' conveys the concept. Christ's resurrection was the first token that God's investment in a New Creation was a successful enterprise. – Nigel J Jun 15 '18 at 03:11
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    @Nigel J - you've just partially answered my question. Pity the question has to be closed before others can contribute, though. I still want to know what ‘protoktistos’ means. – Lesley Jun 15 '18 at 07:28
  • @Ruminator - Comment noted although "does firstborn mean first created" and "does the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ mean “first created”" seem to me to be asking the same thing. I have split the secondary question to separate that from asking if ‘protoktistos’ is ever applied to Christ Jesus. As Nigel J has said in his comment "that word never occurs in scripture." So I guess I have an answer of sorts. – Lesley Jun 15 '18 at 07:39
  • @Perry Webb – I seek the meaning of the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ and not the meaning of the Greek word ‘prototokos’ (which translates as firstborn). – Lesley Jun 16 '18 at 16:51
  • @Mark Edward – I’m not asking about the meaning of the Greek word ‘prototokos’ (which translates as firstborn). I’m trying to find out if the Greek word ‘protoktistos’ means first created. – Lesley Jun 16 '18 at 16:51
  • @Lesley Questions specifically about 'the Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew languages' are off-topic, as mentioned in the Tour. This question is only tangentially related to a biblical text, and as far as I can see, editing it to bring it back on-topic would make it a duplicate of an existing question. –  Jun 16 '18 at 22:16
  • @Mark Edward - "Questions specifically about 'the Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew languages' are off-topic." Really? https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/29750/does-proverbs-822-say-that-gods-wisdom-was-the-first-person-thing-that-god-cre/29807#29807 – Lesley Jun 17 '18 at 06:30
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    @Lesley I spent most of my last shift studying around this subject and I think I may understand - now - why you asked the question. Colossians 1:15 πρωτοτοκος πασης κτισεως - 'prototokos of every creature' [KJV]. Had your question been specific to this text I think we might have got somewhere with it, by relating 'creation' to 'prototokos' in this text rather than to a word not in scripture. – Nigel J Jun 17 '18 at 07:27
  • @Nigel J - I now see where I went wrong. Appreciate the time and trouble you've taken over this. Asking questions (properly) is fiendishly difficult! Still, I have learned from this mistake and also found the answer to my question from independent research. Peace. – Lesley Jun 17 '18 at 09:30

1 Answers1

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Yes, the πρωτόκτιστος would mean the "first-created", and in this context, when the entire creation κτίσις is mentioned, it would mean that Jesus is the first, but nevertheless one among the created things, enlisted in their class as its first member. But it is written πρωτότοκος - "the first-born" - and not πρωτόκτιστος, and since τίκτω ("to give birth", "beget") here is semantically different from κτίζω ("to create"), thus also Christ's status is semantically different from the status of the entire creation. It is the same as if one has found a firsthand ink-written manuscript of Shakespeare's "Hamlet" and wrote: "I have found the ink-written manuscript of "Hamlet", the first-written of all printed "Hamlets". This sentence would clearly put the written "Hamlet" outside the class of the printed "Hamlets", for the verb "to write" is semantically different from the verb "to print". Similarly here, the "first-begotten" stands outside of the class of the "created". The immediate continuation of the sentence also excludes any possibility of putting Jesus in the class of created order, for we read that "everything, the visible and invisible is created in Him" and "through Him" (1:16), now "everything" is everything and it contains the entirety of creation, exempting from this entirety the one in whom and through whom this entirety is created. The same is said in Hebrews 1:1, saying that "through Him (the Son) God made the universe"; now, there is nothing created outside the universe and both the one who creates and the one through whom is created the universe are necessarily not enlisted with the universe, ergo, both are beyond creation/co-uncreated, ergo - co-eternal also, for time is an aspect of creation and beyond creation is only a-temporality/eternity.

πρωτόκτιστος is never applied and cannot be applied to Jesus Christ. Arians and their theological descendants Jehovah-witnesists tried to explain Proverb 8:22's ἔκτισεν with reference to God's Wisdom as God's Wisdom being created, and thus, from this passage transferring the createdness to Jesus. Yet this conjuncture of theirs does not stand criticism, but on this there is so many written. I have also written on this on this site of Biblical Hermeneutics (See question: "Does Proverbs 8:22 say that God's wisdom was the first person/thing that God created" Does Proverbs 8:22 say that God's wisdom was the first person/thing that God created? ).

Levan Gigineishvili
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  • @Lesley Dear Lesley, I understand, for some reason you may not have liked my post, but it would be nicer if you might have substantiated and voiced your dislike or objections. Cheers. Levan – Levan Gigineishvili Jun 16 '18 at 22:33
  • It was not I who downvoted your answer. Indeed, I have now upvoted your answer. Thank you for responding to my question. – Lesley Jun 17 '18 at 06:08
  • Here is a link to an article I found that relates specifically to the meaning of "firstborn" and why the Greek word for "first created" is never applied to Christ Jesus (section IV): http://www.bible-researcher.com/metzger.jw.html – Lesley Jun 17 '18 at 06:11
  • @Lesley Thanks dear Lesley, for reading and estimating! I will see the source you provide the link to and give my opinion about it also! – Levan Gigineishvili Jun 17 '18 at 12:48