Did Plutarch Use the Term Sabbatismos in Plutarch, De Superstitione 3, in Moralia 2. 166a

Question

Question:

1. What are the actual phrases used by Plutarch, in regards to "sabbatismos / σαββατισμὸς" - in the different manuscripts of his writings, (if there is more than one reading in Greek).
2. How / when did this discrepancy arise?
3. If it is more correct, or even plausible, that Plutarch used the word "sabbatismos / σαββατισμὸς", does anything in his writings suggest what he meant?

Plutarch, De Superstitione 3, in Moralia 2. 166a From Tufts @ Perseus, (Website Link):

ὦ βάρβαρ᾽ ἐξευρόντες Ἕλληνες κακά τῇ δεισιδαιμονίᾳ, πηλώσεις καταβορβορώσεις βαπτισμούς, ² ῥίψεις ἐπὶ πρόσωπον, αἰσχρὰς; προκαθίσεις, ἀλλοκότους προσκυνήσεις. δικαίῳ τῷ στόματι τοὺς κιθαρῳδοὺς ἐκέλευον ᾄδειν οἱ τὴν νόμιμον μουσικὴν

¹ Nauck p. 698
² βαπτισμούς Bentleius: σαββατισμούς

In the related question, What basis do we have for defining Sabbatismos in Hebrews 4:9?, an answer suggests that Hebrews 4:9, (Hebrew Interlinear) is indicating that Christians are required to keep the Sabbath Command as Moses instructed - if it is actually true that Plutarch demonstrated that this is how "sabbatismos / σαββατισμὸς" was understood at the time.

That premise of the argument is dependent on the premise that Plutarch actually used the term, and that his context illustrates how the word was used.

However, Tufts @ Perseus seems to point to a manuscript discrepancy, without clarification.

Answer 1

This is not about manuscript discrepancy. The manuscripts have σαββατισμούς. βαπτισμούς is a conjecture by the classicist Bentley (1662 – 1742). The sound approach is to follow the manuscript text unless it is manifestly wrong; only in latter case should one consider emending the text. I do not see any good reason to reject σαββατισμούς. The use of the same word in Hebrews supports the assumption that this term could have been known to Plutarch.