Since the semantic range for the Hebrew root nphl can indicate a miscarriage* (1), or even an abortion (2) (as it does in modern Hebrew today), is it possible that the Genesis 6:4 reading regarding the Nephilim (which shares the same root nphl) (3)(4)(5), instead of referring to some form of "giants", relates instead to an antediluvian form of abortion?
As such, it would begin something like this:
"[Abortions] were [in] the earth in those days..."
From the passage, I've come away with a few contextual clues that might help establish the possibility that "abortions" might be considered here as accurate. They are as follows:
1.) The context of the passage is primarily about sexual relationships/marriages and the conception of children (See Genesis 6:1-4, “men began to multiple”, “daughters born”, “took them wives”, God talking about His Spirit and human flesh, which, when joined into one, creates human life or living souls [see Genesis 2:7], “came in unto the daughter of men”, and “bare them children”).
2.) Genesis 6:5-7 speaks of the LORD seeing the great wickedness of humanity upon the earth, i.e. that every imagination of the human heart was continuously evil. For that reason, God sorrowed within Himself for having created the human race, and decided to annihilate it. Is it possible the murder of an unborn child is considered by God to be the height of this wickedness?
3.) Noah, his children, and their wives, were the only ones who survived the Flood. This would mean that Goliath, the Anakims, Emims, and Rephaims, as giants (Cf. Numbers 13:33), do not appear to be descended from some other especially strange race of human-demon hybrids. If so, these giants then, though gigantic, are still humans only, somehow descended from Noah and his offspring.
4.) Fallen angels are spirits, and cannot marry, the institution through which God ordained human procreation (Cf. Matthew 22:30, Mark 122:25, and Luke 20:35-36, with Genesis 1:28). To do so would seemingly require an act of God as their Creator, to allow them or give them the ability to do so, something apparently He did not do by not allowing them to be "given in marriage" prior to their fall (since, according to Jesus, holy angels are not given in marriage [in order to procreate, ostensibly]; therefore it follows that fallen angels, prior to their fall, were likewise restricted from being given in marriage for the purposes of procreation, therefore, ontologically speaking, the ability to procreate would not be added to their nature as spirits, post-fall, except through special divine endowment).
Notwithstanding the above, is it possible to conclusively prove either for or against the idea that the Nephilim refer to aborted human fetuses?
*Miscarriages are also called "spontaneous abortions. See here: https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/001488.htm.
Footnotes:
(1) http://biblehub.com/hebrew/5309.htm
(2) https://www.pealim.com/dict/3823-hapala/
(3) http://biblehub.com/interlinear/genesis/6-4.htm
