Did God speak with Moses in a more "broken, simplified, or intimate" Hebrew dialect?

Asked Aug 18 '17 at 23:59

Active Oct 11 '17 at 16:12

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No specific Bible verse to quote, but it's something I've heard tossed around before. Can anyone confirm the validity of this claim? It went something along the lines of,

"When Moses is writing the Pentateuch, he uses a specific form of Hebrew that is polished and refined. When he quotes himself in conversation with God, however, the Hebrew 'dialect' that YHWH and he use is like that of a husband speaking with his wife."

asked Aug 18 '17 at 23:59

RJ Navarrete

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Related: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/20696/what-does-it-means-to-have-uncircumcised-lips/20703#20703 – James Shewey Aug 19 '17 at 05:44
Curious, where does that claim come from? Who said it? – Christian Sirolli Aug 19 '17 at 12:01
The Wiseman theory suggests that each portion ending in "these are the generations of" was written by a different author. You have piqued my curiosity to look as possible differences in style. There are noticeable differences between the story of Joseph and the beginning chapters. If God spoke to Moses in a more primitive way, it might more closely follow the patterns of the earlier chapters. – Bob Jones Oct 31 '17 at 00:24
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Duplicate of https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/1441/50181 – Abu Munir Ibn Ibrahim al Yahud Aug 14 '22 at 14:35
Does this answer your question? Does Moses Speak Broken Hebrew? – agarza Sep 10 '22 at 15:54

Did God speak with Moses in a more "broken, simplified, or intimate" Hebrew dialect?

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