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I was asked if anal sex is a sin, and I could not find any biblical reference of indication either way. The closest I could find was Ro. 1:27; "committing indecent acts (the shameless deed NASB)." However, "the unseemliness [working]" (Strongs 2716, katergazomai: to work out) only seems to indicate that shameful (homosexual) acts were completed. But in the context of Ro. 1:24-32, does verse 27 refer to acts which would be shameful no matter who they were performed with, or does it refer to all acts in the homosexual sense as shameful?

Chris
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  • Re your answer post: if you have something to clarify about this question that makes it's scope different from the one marked as a duplicate please [edit] this question post to reflect the actual clarified question. If the question matches the site guidelines and is different from the other question it could be re-opened. Not that an answer post was not the right place to clarify the question itself. Thanks for understanding. – Caleb May 21 '17 at 05:40
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    Men with men (homosexual), and women with women (homosexual) is the whole point of Romans 1.

    This is contrasted with "the natural use of the woman".

     – Sola Gratia Jun 07 '17 at 20:03

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