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In the OT sickness and such is never ascribed to demons. There are no exorcisms or people "possessed by demons". In fact, even the Satan is only treated as a personal entity a few times. And YHVH's angels are not named as individuals except in a couple of places.

But in the NT, especially the gospels, demons are everywhere and are busily doing all kinds of mischief. For example:

Mat 9:32 As they were going away, behold, a demon-oppressed man who was mute was brought to him. Mat 9:33 And when the demon had been cast out, the mute man spoke. And the crowds marveled, saying, "Never was anything like this seen in Israel." Mat 9:34 But the Pharisees said, "He casts out demons by the prince of demons."

What did the original writer of this passage mean by 'demons', and how was it understood by the original readers? What is the history of this idea? Did they think something happened so that now the world is full of demons? Or did some intertestamental writing catch hold so that demonic activity was now thought a given?

Personally I'm inclined to think that it is the scrolls of Enoch that have made demons an NT commonplace but I'd like to hear if anyone has an alternate suggestion.

In particular I'd like to hear thoughts on the origin of the idea of a "ruler of demons" and other authority structures in "the dark side".

Schuh
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  • I edited the question so it's more clearly about hermeneutics instead of theology, but on reflection, doesn't Wikipedia provide the 'history of demonology' you're looking for? I'm just not sure your primary question is appropriate for this site. – Schuh May 08 '16 at 22:04
  • @Schuh Actually I think you made it more theological but I don't have the right to refuse the edit, probably because I said "vulva" out loud. :) (Actually it is because of my 3 bonuses I'm offering). Do you agree that it is rather jarring the way the NT world is different from the OT, populated as it is by demons making mischief? –  May 08 '16 at 22:29
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    Yes, the imaginations that produced the earliest Hebrew books and the later writings -- both Jewish and Christian -- were hugely different. IMO that's thanks to 200 years of Persian/Zoroastrian influence. The literature of the intertestmental period is full of rich, new theologies, including angels and demons, as you suggest. – Schuh May 08 '16 at 23:07

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Demons, whether good or bad but usually bad, existed in many ancient cultures.The Jewish writings of the Apocalyptic period did expand on the notion of demons, with the Book of Enoch introducing the Watcher angels. The Hebrew word that came to mean 'demons' (shedim) occurs in Deuteronomy 32:17 and Psalm 106:37, but only as false gods to whom sacrifices were made. There are indications that, in popular Hebrew mythology, various diseases and ailments were ascribed to demons. To cure such diseases, it was necessary to draw out the evil demons by certain incantations and talismanic performances, at which Wikipedia says the Essenes excelled. What is largely absent is the belief that demons actually take over and possess people.

It is in the New Testament that we learn about demon possession. Jeffrey B. Russell says in The Prince of Darkness, page 45, the essential function of Satan in the New Testament is to obstruct the kingdom of God as long and as thoroughly as he can, with possession as one of his favourite weapons. Ordinarily the demons, Satan's servants, do the actual possessing, though in the Johannine literature Satan does it himself.

Mark's Gospel introduces almost a cult of demon possession, in order to demonstrate the power of Jesus to be able to exorcise them. In Mark chapter 5, Jesus exorcises a whole legion of demons from an unfortunate man. In return, the demons invariably tell us something that proves that Jesus is the Son of God, as in Mark 3:11:

Mark 3:11: And unclean spirits, when they saw him, fell down before him, and cried, saying, Thou art the Son of God.

The evidence is that belief that demons could enter a person and cause disease was part of the informal culture of the Jews long before the gospels were written, but the Christian notion of demon possession came to the fore with Mark's Gospel, followed in turn by Matthew, Luke and John. Regardless of whether Mark's reports were strictly historical or were simply embellishments of existing tradition, they demonstrated the power of Jesus over demons, who in turn readily acknowledged him as Son of God.

Dick Harfield
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  • FWIW, the comment on Essene expertise seems to stem from Qumran manuscript 11Q11, an actual liturgy for exorcism, from the Herodian period, so the liturgy is likely earlier. And Tobit 3 (2nd c. BCE?) tells of a woman whose demon killed her 6 successive husbands! Both of these predate the NT, so I’m not sure we can call demon possession a Christian notion. More here: https://books.google.com/books?id=NmZ7Q1-8QkEC&pg=PA37&dq=11q11&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjigpSN6svMAhVR5WMKHcElCZcQ6AEINTAF#v=onepage&q=11q11&f=false – Schuh May 09 '16 at 01:54
  • @Schuh Yes, I am aware of Tobit, but suggest this is different from the "Christian notion of demon possession" - all the demon did was kill them, not possess them. In any case, what Russell said was that in the NT Satan specifically to obstruct the kingdom of God; what I added was that Mark introduces almost a cult of demon possession. I have tried to show that there were Jewish antecedents, but that the Christian notion is qualitatively different and has different theological purposes. – Dick Harfield May 09 '16 at 02:31