In the OT sickness and such is never ascribed to demons. There are no exorcisms or people "possessed by demons". In fact, even the Satan is only treated as a personal entity a few times. And YHVH's angels are not named as individuals except in a couple of places.
But in the NT, especially the gospels, demons are everywhere and are busily doing all kinds of mischief. For example:
Mat 9:32 As they were going away, behold, a demon-oppressed man who was mute was brought to him. Mat 9:33 And when the demon had been cast out, the mute man spoke. And the crowds marveled, saying, "Never was anything like this seen in Israel." Mat 9:34 But the Pharisees said, "He casts out demons by the prince of demons."
What did the original writer of this passage mean by 'demons', and how was it understood by the original readers? What is the history of this idea? Did they think something happened so that now the world is full of demons? Or did some intertestamental writing catch hold so that demonic activity was now thought a given?
Personally I'm inclined to think that it is the scrolls of Enoch that have made demons an NT commonplace but I'd like to hear if anyone has an alternate suggestion.
In particular I'd like to hear thoughts on the origin of the idea of a "ruler of demons" and other authority structures in "the dark side".