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Matthew 12:40 quotes the Messiah saying that He would be in the "heart of the earth" for 3 days and 3 nights. I think the majority of folks believe that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week, with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the next week. This period of time, however, would only allow for 2 nights. To account for this discrepancy, it is frequently "argued" that the verse is using common Jewish idiomatic language of the time.

I wonder if anyone (who thinks that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week and who thinks that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb) knows of any writing which shows a phrase from the first century or before which states a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights when the actual period of time absolutely couldn't have included at least parts of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?

elika kohen
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rstrats
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Consider understanding:

a) Judges 19: 4-5, and the difference between the Hebrew text and the Greek text (LXX).

His father-in-law, the girl’s father, persuaded him to stay with him for three days, and they ate and drank together, and spent the night there. On the fourth day they woke up early and the Levite got ready to leave. But the girl’s father said to his son-in-law, “Have a bite to eat for some energy, then you can go.” Judges 19: 4-5 Net

b) In Jewish time, the day begins with the onset of night followed by the morning:

It is a Sabbath of complete rest for you, and you must humble yourselves on the ninth day of the month in the evening, from evening until evening you must observe your Sabbath.” Leviticus 23:32 (Gen. 1:5,8,13,19,23, 31)

The fourth day written in Judges 19: 5 is still dark, one night.

“Go, assemble all the Jews who are found in Susa and fast in my behalf. Don’t eat and don’t drink for three days, night or day. My female attendants and I will also fast in the same way. Afterward I will go to the king, even though it violates the law. If I perish, I perish!” (Et 4:16 [NET])

It so happened that on the third day Esther put on her royal attire and stood in the inner court of the palace, opposite the king’s quarters. The king was sitting on his royal throne in the palace, opposite the entrance. (Et 5:1 [NET])

The three-day period had not come to an end when she stood before the king, if different, would be: on the fourth day.

So Jonah went immediately to Nineveh, as the LORD had said. (Now Nineveh was an enormous city – it required three days to walk through it!) When Jonah began to enter the city one day’s walk, he announced, “At the end of forty days, Nineveh will be overthrown!” (Jn 3:3-4 [NET]).

The days and nights of walking, corresponds to the distance that the fish sank into the abyss

But he said to them, “Go and tell that fox, ‘Look, I am casting out demons and performing healings today and tomorrow, and on the third day I will complete my work. (Lc 13:32 [NET])

A clear example of Common Idiomatic Language.

Jesus was not consummated in the third literal day after his speech, but he walked the relative distance of three days and three nights to Jerusalem, coming to town, where he was consummated.

Betho's
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Esther 4:16 (NKJV) (emphasis in all texts mine):

16 “Go, gather all the Jews who are present in Shushan, and fast for me; neither eat nor drink for three days, night or day. My maids and I will fast likewise. And so I will go to the king, which is against the law; and if I perish, I perish!”

Esther 5:1, 4 (NKJV):

1 Now it happened on the third day that Esther put on her royal robes and stood in the inner court of the king’s palace, across from the king’s house, while the king sat on his royal throne in the royal house, facing the entrance of the house.

[...]

4 So Esther answered, “If it pleases the king, let the king and Haman come today to the banquet that I have prepared for him.”

As you can see, Esther could not have fasted for a third night since she would have eaten and drank at the banquet with the king and Haman on the third day.

Genesis 42:16-20 (NKJV) somewhat does this as well:

16 Send one of you, and let him bring your brother; and you shall be kept in prison, that your words may be tested to see whether there is any truth in you; or else, by the life of Pharaoh, surely you are spies!” 17 So he put them all together in prison three days.

18 Then Joseph said to them the third day, “Do this and live, for I fear God: 19 If you are honest men, let one of your brothers be confined to your prison house; but you, go and carry grain for the famine of your houses. 20 And bring your youngest brother to me; so your words will be verified, and you shall not die.”

And they did so.

Though not specifically mentioning "three days and three nights," Joseph released his brothers from prison on the third day. The third day did not fully complete, yet they were still considered imprisoned for three days.

Matthew 16:21 (NKJV):

21 From that time Jesus began to show to His disciples that He must go to Jerusalem, and suffer many things from the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised the third day.

Jesus repeats the concept of being raised on the third day in Matthew 17:22-23 and Matthew 20:17-19 as well, thus giving implicit acknowledgement several times that "three days and three nights" is an idiom. The Pharisees understood this and asked Pilate to post guards at Jesus' tomb until the third day in Matthew 27:62-65 (NKJV):

62 On the next day, which followed the Day of Preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees gathered together to Pilate, 63 saying, “Sir, we remember, while He was still alive, how that deceiver said, ‘After three days I will rise.’ 64 Therefore command that the tomb be made secure until the third day, lest His disciples come by night and steal Him away, and say to the people, ‘He has risen from the dead.’ So the last deception will be worse than the first.”

65 Pilate said to them, “You have a guard; go your way, make it as secure as you know how.”

They did not ask Pilate to post guards until the forth day, which would have covered the third night, but only until the third day.

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    Bʀɪᴀɴ, re: "...Esther could not have fasted for a third night..."

    She could have because the night comes before the day.

    re: "The third day did not fully complete..."

    I'm looking for examples where no part of a day and/or no part of a night could have been involved.

    re: "...thus giving implicit acknowledgement several times that "three days and three nights' is an idiom."

    But I'm looking for examples to show that it was a "common" idiom.

    – rstrats Feb 10 '16 at 17:48
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    @rstrats, Good point. Supposing Esther starts fasting during the evening would in fact give her 3 nights: night 1 (day 1 begins) --> day 1 (daylight) --> night 2 (day 2 begins) --> day 2 (daylight) --> night 3 (day 3 begins) --> day 3 (daylight, Esther goes to the king). –  Feb 10 '16 at 21:47
  • @rstrats, Although I think the above scenario is unlikely since she is sending a messenger back and forth to Mordecai while he is crying out loudly and mourning in the midst of the city, going even up to the king's gate (Esther 4:1-2). Obviously I wasn't there, but I would imagine Mordecai started doing this during daylight. –  Feb 10 '16 at 21:55
  • @elikakohen - A) While no, it doesn't explicitly say that Esther actually ate or drank something at the banquet, it also doesn't say that the king or Haman actually ate or drank anything either. So using your reasoning, no one actually ate or drank anything at all during the banquet. B) You are mistaken. A day beginning in the evening goes all the way back to Creation: _"And the evening and the morning were the first day [second day / third day / etc]" (Genesis 1). –  Mar 06 '17 at 02:37
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    @Bʀɪᴀɴ - A.) "And the Evening, and morning..." You left out the most important part of the verse: "God [did stuff], then there was evening, and morning -> the first day." B.) "It does not say 'it was night and it was day', but 'it was evening', [meaning] the first day passed and the light set, 'and it was morning', the ending of the night, for the dawn broke." Rashbam; C.) Halakha supersedes Torah; Although the plain reading of Genesis indicates, "Daytime, Night, Daybreak = one Day" - Halakhic rulings prevail. – elika kohen Mar 06 '17 at 16:04
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    @elikakohen - A) You're wrong. It specifically says: ויהי ערב ויהי בקר יום אחד "And came about evening and came about morning, day one/first." or "And the evening and the morning were the first day." All that God did during the first day was encompassed during the evening and then the morning. It does not say or even imply "then there was evening and morning [after God did stuff]." B) & C) You will never convince me that the Talmud rules over the Torah, especially when the Torah has such a plain and simple meaning here. –  Mar 06 '17 at 17:47
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    @Bʀɪᴀɴ - A.) Rashbam, a Hebrew Scholar, adequately proved the "Plain-Meaning" - enough for Judaism; B.) Halakhic authority can supersede the Torah - even Jesus said this, (Matt.23:2; Rom.13:1; Deut.16:8); C.) Your reply is incomplete until it addresses two facts that Rashbam pointed out: C.1.) "Evening" is the process of the sun setting, which cannot exist without a previous day; and C.2.) "Afterwards the second day began, and God said 'Let there be sky', "AND there was evening, AND there was morning" - God's actions are clearly distinct from evening, and morning. – elika kohen Mar 06 '17 at 18:15
  • @elikakohen - I've already addressed the plain reading of Genesis, you just won't accept it. Evening does not occur until after the sun has fully set, which is why God said to kill the Passover lamb at twilight on the 14th day (Ex 12), because the 15th didn't start until after twilight (after the sun had fully set). You know this already because multiple people have gone over this with you. Do not turn this comment thread into an argument about when the evening starts--you've already asked multiple questions about that. Please remove your comments and integrate them into your own answer. –  Mar 06 '17 at 18:46
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    @Bʀɪᴀɴ A.) Yes, others have shared their *doctrinal opinions* and ignore sound authorities; even ancient translations and Jewish Scholars object; *this isn't a "Christian site". B.)* The Septuagint rejects your interpretation of "Twilight, (ἑσπέραν. Cf. Gen.1:5;Ex.12:6;Num.9:11)" C.) Jewish Halakha affirms the uncertainty of the term. D.) "Ben ha-'arbayim" (Ex. xii. 6) is interpreted by the Rabbis as meaning the late afternoon – elika kohen Mar 06 '17 at 19:21
  • @Constantthin, I hesitate to make this reply since doing so might very likely cause this comment trail to veer way off topic, and comments aren't meant for discussion. But let me just say I would disagree with you that Gen 1 & Lev 23 contain any contradiction to each other, and that Moses introduced the concept of clean and unclean animals, since this distinction is already mentioned several times in the Noah story. And I would also disagree with you about Peter's vision. –  Jun 22 '18 at 02:20
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The trouble with contradictions is that they are caused by not reading scripture as a whole.

Jer 17:9 The heart [is] deceitful above all [things], and desperately wicked: who can know it?

The heart of the earth is the deceitfulness and wickedness of the earth.

Count back three days and nights and you come to the day that Judas agreed to betray Jesus. Jesus was entered into the deceitfulness and wickedness of the earth from there.

Pr 17:15 ¶ He that justifieth the wicked, and he that condemneth the just, even they both [are] abomination to the LORD.

Bob Jones
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  • Someone new visiting this topic may know of examples. – rstrats Jul 28 '19 at 12:39
  • @rstrats What kinds of examples are you looking for? Of other contradictions resolved by a wider context? – Bob Jones Aug 15 '19 at 17:51
  • This answer is based on generalizing the condition of the human heart (shown to be the human heart by Jeremiah 17:10) to say that any heart of anyone or anything is defined as its deceitfulness. This is incorrect, therefore, the answer is incorrect. Also, the betrayal by Judas was not the only time that Jesus was subjected to deceitfulness, Furthermore, the fact that Judas had Satan enter his heart and became involved in deceitfulness did not mean that Jesus was in that deceitfulness. – Thomas Gray Dec 20 '20 at 16:25
  • No. The answer is based upon the rules for discerning sensus plenior as discussed elsewhere. It is in the genre of prophetic riddle. If you mix your genres you get false conclusions. – Bob Jones Dec 20 '20 at 21:03
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Related:
- In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?
- Did Chrysostom's Text Say a "Double Sabbath" was One Day? or Two?
- In Luke 22:16: Does the Syntax Indicate if Jesus Was not Going to Eat THAT Passover?
- The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

1. Questions :

  • Is there evidence that "Heart of the Earth" can convey an altered sense of time? NO.
  • How do authors convey a literal sense of "24 hour periods" ? By indicating the hours of each day.
  • When the numbers of days and nights are reckoned separately, does it include partial days? YES.
  • Are there OTHER Idioms in the Passion Narrative that are used in the Reckoning of Days? YES.
  • Could Jewish Practices have altered the reckoning of Days and Nights? YES.
  • Are there textual examples where a day or night is indicated and NO part of the day or night is included : NO.

2. Is there evidence that "Heart of the Earth" can convey an altered sense of Time?

The origin of the expression "Heart of the Earth" is actually an allusion to "Heart of the Sea", (i.e., Jonah, other Biblical Instances).

Regardless - There seem to be NO instances where "altered senses of time" apply to these metaphors in Scripture, or Greco-Roman literature, (also see the Perseus library).


3. How are Literal "24 Hour Periods" Conveyed in Scripture?

In Scripture - when authors intend to convey a literal "24 hour period", the "hours of each day" are explicitly indicated. However - when the "hours of each day" are not specified - it is implicitly understood that "partial days and nights" are included :

NASB, Leviticus 23:32 - It is to be a sabbath of complete rest to you, and you shall humble your souls; on the ninth of the month at evening, from evening until evening you shall keep your sabbath.”

NASB, Acts 10:3 - About the ninth hour of the day he clearly saw in a vision an angel of God who had just come in and said to him, “Cornelius!” ... Acts 10:30 - Cornelius said, “Four days ago to this hour, I was praying in my house during the ninth hour;


4. When the numbers of days and nights are reckoned separately, does it include partial days?

Reckoning of "Days and Nights" is Inclusive of the Beginning, and End :

NASB, 1 Samuel 20:5 - 5 So David said to Jonathan, “Behold, tomorrow [מָחָ֔ר] is the new moon "חֹ֫דֶשׁ", (literally, the next calendar month/day) ... let me go, that I may hide myself in the field until the third evening.

Note: Three Nights of Hiding - including this same night. This Evening - was a separate calendar day from the first two days of the month.

No Part of a Previous "Day" is Used to Add to the Final Third "Day" :

NASB, 1 Samuel 20:12 - Then Jonathan said to David, “The Lord, the God of Israel, be witness! When I have sounded out my father, [a time as now, the third coming] "כָּעֵ֤ת ׀ מָחָר֙ הַשְּׁלִשִׁ֔ית", Hebrew Text w/Translations ...

Note: "third time as now" - "now" indicates that evening; "as now" indicates "another evening"; "the third" indicates the third evening, including this one.

The Text Explicitly Synchronizes "Tomorrow" and "Next Calendar Day" :

1 Samuel 20:18 - Then Jonathan said to him, “Tomorrow is the new moon ... 19 and on the third [morrow/next day], you shall go down quickly and come to the place ...

Note: This is the "Appointed Time" set by David and Jonathan. Whether the "third next day "begins at Night, or Day" - will be settled by observing the time when David "Quickly" arrives. The context, and its severity, shows that this is not ambiguous to either David or Jonathan.

Note: If it is held that a "next day" begins at night, then that next morning would not count towards the "three", and there would only be "two days" - a contradiction.

A Day "בַּיּ֣וֹם" Can Ambiguously Refer to Night or Daytime :

1 Samuel 20:24, First Night Hid -> Next Day/New Month - So David hid in the field; and when the new moon [literally, next Month] came, the king sat down to eat food. 25 ... but David’s place was empty. 26 Nevertheless Saul did not speak anything that day [בַּיּ֣וֹם].

Note: This indicates that David's seat had been empty - that day, showing how long the feast had been.

NASB, 1 Samuel 20:27, 2nd Night Hid -> Second Day - It came about the next day, the second [-] of the [month] ... ; so Saul said ..., “Why has the [David] not come ... either yesterday or today? 34 Then Jonathan ... did not eat food on the second day [בְּיוֹם] of the new moon ...

Note: Here, the text explicitly uses "Yom" for day - that Jonathan had not eaten at all the second day of the month. Since Saul is noting that David had not been present - for TWO days - it makes more sense that Saul was expecting David to arrive during the day-time.

Any Amount of Time - After Daybreak - Constitutes another "Day" :

1 Samuel 20:35, Third Night Hid, Third Day - 35 Now it came about in the "morning/בַבֹּ֔קֶר [ distinct from daybreak/הַשַּׁ֣חַר עָלָ֔ה] that Jonathan went out into the field for the appointment [the third next day, (1 Sam 20:19)] with David.

Note: Here, the text shows when David "Quickly" met with Jonathan - in the morning, after sun-rise.

A "Day" can be Reckoned - even after Excluding Part of the Day:

NASB, John 4:6 and Jacob’s well was there. So Jesus, being wearied from His journey, was sitting thus by the well. It was about the sixth hour. John 4:40 So when the Samaritans came to Jesus, they were asking Him to stay with them; and He stayed there two days ...

Note: There is no example where "x number of days" was not inclusive.

A Period of "Days" Can be an Estimate :

NASB, 1 Samuel 30:11 - Now they found an Egyptian ... and gave him bread ... and they provided him water ... and he ate; then his spirit revived. For he had not eaten bread or drunk water for three days and three nights ... 13 ... and my master left me behind when I fell sick three days ago.

Note: It is well beyond this passage to assert that David's men found this man - exactly to the hour - three days and nights later. Especially since the man wasn't "observing a set fast" but was sick and left to die.


5. Are there OTHER Idioms in the Passion Narrative that are used in the Reckoning of Days?

Idiom : "The Feast of Unleavened Bread" -

NASB, Luke 22:1 - Now the Feast of Unleavened Bread, which is called the Passover, was approaching.

Idiom : That Sabbath, was a "Great Day" -

With absolute certainty - "Great Sabbath" is an idiomatic phrase. In this context - this is a reference to the Passover Sabbath, when it falls on a weekday, (see Special Sabbaths, Wikipedia Link, and High Holy Days).

NASB, John 19:31 - ... so that the bodies would not remain on the cross on the Sabbath (for that Sabbath was a high day(μεγάλη ἡ ἡμέρα).

Holding that there were two Sabbaths that week, and that the Sabbath meal was eaten after Jesus' crucifixion, "cleanly" accounts for three days/nights - without contradictions : Wednesday Night [Last Supper]; Thurs-Day [Crucifixion] -> Night [Passover Meal]; Fri-Day [Sabbath] -> Night; Saturday/Night [Weekly Sabbath].

Any position that the Passover had already occurred, (been eaten), before Jesus was crucified leads to many, many, contradictions in the New Testament - not to mention the doctrine of "Jesus as the Passover Lamb", (Contradiction Example: John 18:28).

Disputed Idiom : "The Day of" -

NASB, Matthew 26:17 - "... the first day of Unleavened Bread the disciples came to Jesus and asked ..."

This passage is the primary verse relied on to claim that the Last Supper was actually a Passover Seder.

But, there is substantial literary precedent to hold that "the day came" is idiomatic for, "it was very close to the time".


6. Could Jewish Practices have altered the reckoning of Days and Nights?

The idea of a "Day" beginning at Sun-Set, is purely Pharasaic - and does not appear in Jewish literature until the Babylonian exile, reflecting the Babylonian view of a "Day" beginning at sunset.

Sudducean Jews, Karaites, Christians - even Jesus, rejected the authority of supposed "Oral Law from Moses".

NASB, Luke 23:54 - It was the preparation day, and the Sabbath was about to dawn [interpreted as "begin"].

This passage - if interpreted literally - reflects a Non-Pharasaic view that Priests signified the beginning of the Sabbath - during the day. (Josephus provides an example of priests blowing trumpets immediately before work - to announce the beginning of a day, (below).

Historically, the "Jewish Calendar" was not pre-calculated - but announced following observations by people, (the Jewish Calendar was not "fixed" until ~358/9 CE by Hillel II).

The Priests would make those "calls", at their discretion, with trumpets - depending on the circumstances:

Only Two Trumpet Blasts Regarding "The Day" - Once Before Work Began, and Once as it Ended :

Josephus, Wars of the Jews J. BJ 4.577-582, English, Greek :

the third at another corner over against the lower city, [J. BJ. 4.582, Greek] and the last was erected above the top of the Pastophoria, where one of the priests stood of course [ἔθους, by custom], and gave a signal beforehand, with a trumpet, [ σάλπιγγι] at the beginning of every seventh day [ἑβδομάδα], in the day/twilight/? [δείλης] - ambiguous, but certainly before sunset, as also at the evening [ἑσπέρα] when that day was finished, as giving notice to the people when they were to leave off work [ἀνέργειαν] - certainly night time, and when they were to go to work again.

Josephus' account raises a LOT of questions - for me - and I am still researching the uses of "day", "evening", "night", etc - in Greek literature.

Exceptions that Plausibly Could Have Affected Announcements - that Week -

  1. Two Sabbath days could have occurred that week, (Passover is always a Sabbath day);
  2. The Passover Sabbath may have been relaxed by the Priests - if it fell on a weekday, perhaps starting later.
  3. On the Day Jesus was Crucified, there was a period of Darkness - which could account for another "Night" or "Day", (Luke 23:44-45; Joel 2, Amos 4);
elika kohen
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  • Perhaps someone new looking in knows of examples. – rstrats Mar 01 '17 at 21:16
  • elika kohen, re: " Are you looking for a more thorough 'proof' that references to the Greco-Roman Hades do not seem applicable to this context?" No, not for the purpose of this topic.

    re: "I added a couple more idiom examples from the passages." I'm afraid I don't see where they show where a daytime or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred. But maybe someone new looking in will know of examples.

    – rstrats Mar 04 '17 at 12:27
  • elika kohen, re: " I might have went in the wrong direction with this answer - could you point out which parts are close to what you are looking for?"

    I'm afraid I can't. I don't see where you have provided any actual examples to show that it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could occur.

    – rstrats Mar 07 '17 at 13:25
  • @rstrats - Ah, I think I see the misunderstanding: A.) You commented : "I don't see ... examples to ... that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part* of the daytime or no part of the night time could occur."* B.) But your question asks : "which states a specific number of days ... couldn't have included at least parts* of each one of the specific number of days and at least parts of each one of the specific number of nights?"; C.)* Perhaps you can update your question? – elika kohen Mar 07 '17 at 17:09
  • re: "Am I still misinterpreting the question?" – rstrats Mar 18 '17 at 12:39
  • You are. But I'm going to have to drop out of this topic since I can't figure out how to use this crazy formatting. – rstrats Mar 18 '17 at 12:51
  • James Shewey, re: "Possible duplicate of How is it that Jesus could be 'three days and three nights in the heart of the earth'?"

    I'm afraid I don't see where that topic shows examples of where a daytime or a night time was forecast to be involved with an event when no part of the daytime or no part of the night time could have occurred.

    – rstrats Sep 02 '17 at 11:17
  • @elika kohen The period of darkness could not have been reckoned as a night. If it had been so reckoned then that would have been the beginning of the Sabbath night, a three-hour Sabbath night followed by a three-hour Sabbath day. Then, as the sunset hour, we would have, not the Sabbath, but the first day of the week. That is implausible, hence I seriously doubt the period of the darkness would have been reckoned as a night. However, the Sabbath was drawing on as Joseph and Niccodemus rushed to bury the body AFTER the period of darkness. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 18 '21 at 00:16
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Matthew 26:31 I will strike the shepherd, and the sheep of the flock will be scattered.

The striking of the shepherd took place in Gethsemane -- not on the cross.

v. 56, Then all the disciples left him and fled.

It clearly happened at night -- the first night of the "three days and three nights"?

Gethsemane does mean "oil-press" Hebrew "gat-shemanim"

The olive has to be pressed to obtain the oil. To press = Greek θλίβω from which θλῖψις = persecution, affliction, distress, tribulation

The olive said to be the fruit belonging to the sixth day, after Deuteronomy 8:8, in which the seven species of the promised land are enumerated.

Judas's betrayal indeed happened on the sixth day, which began Matthew 26:20, When evening had come he reclined with the twelve

Hebrew for eight "shemonah" is female form of "shemen", oil.

The eighth day being the third day from the sixth -- sunday as new day one = day of light of which the essence is the olive-oil.

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Bob Jones, re: "@rstrats What kinds of examples are you looking for?"

OK, let me repeat:

  1. The Messiah said that He would be three days and three nights in the "heart of the earth".

  2. There are some who think that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.

  3. And of those, there are some who think that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb or at the earliest to the moment when His spirit left His body).

  4. However, a 6th day of the week crucifixion/1st day of the week resurrection allows for only 2 nights to be involved.

  5. To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who try to explain the lack of a 3rd night by saying that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language.

  6. I'm simply curious if anyone who may fall in the above group of believers might provide examples to support the belief of commonality; i.e., instances where a daytime or a night time was forecast or said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.

rstrats
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Expressions like ”x days and x nights” are fairly common in the Bible. Some examples are: Gen 7:4, 7:12, Exo 24:18, 34:28, 1 Kings 19:8; 1 Sam 30:12, Jonah 2:1, Job 2:12. (This is not a full list.)

Now, with inclusive counting of days and the counting of part of a day as a whole day, ”x days and x nights” is mathematically speaking impossible.

In a Western culture where we use exclusive counting and count a portion of a day as a portion, it is possible to have 3 days and 3 nights. It we start at 3 p.m. on Friday, then 3 days and 3 nights will extend until 3 p.m. on Monday. If we assume that the ”night” goes from 6 p.m. to 6 a.m., then the mathematics is as follows: Friday day 3 hours, Friday night 12 hours, Saturday day 12 hours, Saturday night 12 hours, Sunday day 12 hours, Sunday night 12 hours, Monday day 9 hours. Altogether 6 times 12 hours equals 3 days and 3 nights.

Now, if we do the same experiment with inclusive counting, the result is different. Again we start at 3. p.m. and assume the night goes from 6 p.m. to 6 a.m: Friday 3-6 p.m. 3 hours= one day. Friday night 12 hours=one night, Saturday day 12 hours=one day, Saturday night 12 hours=one night, Sunday to 3 p.m. 9 hours=one day. This results in 3 days: Friday, Saturday and Sunday plus 2 nights in between: Friday and Saturday.

Since it is mathematically impossible to have 3 days and 3 nights with inclusive counting, why does the Bible talk like that? The reason is fairly simple once you start thinking in Hebrew like the Jews did: In the Hebrew world view, it is of paramount importance to use repetition. If something is repeated it is strengthened. It has poetic force to say 40 days and 40 nights, but it loses that force if we say 40 days and 39 nights.

Another aspect is that the symbolic meaning of numbers is very important. The number 40 stands for a time of testing or trial. (40 years in the wilderness, 40 days in the desert for Jesus, etc.) The number 7 stands for what is complete. The number 3 stands for divine power and intervention. Several times in the OT divine intervention happens on the third day as God said in Exo 19:11: ”Be ready, because on the third day I will intervene with a miracle.” (See also 2 Kings 20:5, Est 5:1, Hos 6:2, Matt 16:21, Luke 24:46). That is why Jonah was in the sea animal 3 days and 2 nights, and that is why Jesus was in the tomb 3 days and 2 nights.

To assume that ”3 days and 3 nights” in Hebrew is the same as ”3 days and 3 nights” in English is to make an ethnocentric mistake.

We can say that 3 days and 3 nights is an idiom that means 3 days inluding the nights in between the days. It would be more clear to translate it as 3 days, day and night.

Iver Larsen
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  • "Sunday to 3 p.m. 9 hours=one day." — But Jesus had already risen before 6am, while it was still dark. So this 9 hours is actually 0 hours. – Ray Butterworth Dec 19 '20 at 19:34
  • This was an example. The Jewish day, Sunday, Nisan 17, had started at sunset the previous day. My point was that "3 days and 3 nights" is a Jewish idiom for 3 days, inclusively counted which includes the nights in between. So, from Friday, 3 p.m. to Sunday, 5 a.m. we still have 3 days (Friday, Saturday, Sunday) including Friday night and most of Saturday night. The Jews would count part of a day as a day and part of a night as a night. – Iver Larsen Dec 20 '20 at 10:54
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Comparing Genesis 17:12 "He who is eight days old among you shall be circumcised," to Leviticus 12:3 "And on the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised," we see that in the Bible the ordinal numbered day occurs when the event is that many days old. That is, the day when the event starts is NOT the first day. The first day is the day in which the event is one day old. When Esther fasted for three days, the day in which she completed the three-day fast was, by Biblical definition, the third day.

Thus, Jesus rose from the death on the third day, which was the day that he completed three days in the grave. According to Luke 24:1, and 21, this third day was the first day of the week. So, the seventh day of the week (the day before) was the second day, and the sixth day was the first day, when Jesus had been in the grave for one day. Therefore, Jesus was killed and put in the grave on the fifth day of the week (Thursday).

Thomas Gray
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  • This could be improved if you looked at all the data available in the Bible. The claim made is incorrect because it does not respect the data. If you want to know more you might look up https://www.academia.edu/4178546/Biblical_Mathematics_x_x_1_and_70_72 – Iver Larsen Dec 25 '20 at 07:14
  • No, Iver. As you point out in your paper, in Leviticus 23:15-16, the counting is to start from the day of the offering, making that day one. You are assuming that the offering of the firstfruits is the event corresponding to the birth of the baby or the crucifixion of Jesus, and that we are supposed to count from those events. The verses I referenced make it clear that the counting for the third day from the crucifixion, and the eighth day from the birth, are to start from the day after the event. – Thomas Gray Dec 27 '20 at 16:34
  • No, Thomas Gray, this is not what I am assuming. I explain it more fully in another paper: https://www.academia.edu/1040897/The_third_day_or_two_days_later or in this paper: https://www.academia.edu/1040871/Counting_of_days_and_nights_in_the_Bible – Iver Larsen Dec 28 '20 at 08:04
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Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections?

Bible Days were often counted inclusively so Friday crucifixion to Sunday resurrection would be three days.

Here are some proofs of inclusive counting from the web page below:

  1. The clearest Biblical demonstration of inclusive counting is in the New Testament (see Acts 10:30 where a period of 72 hours is reckoned as “four days ago,” not “three”), but an Old Testament example is in 2 Kings 18:9-10.

  2. The battle of Samaria lasted from the fourth to the sixth year of Hezekiah, which is equated with the The siege seventh to the ninth year of Hoshea, and yet the city is said to have been taken “at the end of three years.” In modern usage we would say two years, by straight subtraction. Obviously the Bible writer reckoned inclusively (years four, five, and six totaling three years).

  3. A Hebrew boy was circumcised when “eight days old” (Genesis 17:12), that is, “in the eighth day” (Levites 12:3). Similarly Luke speaks of circumcision “on the eighth day” or “when eight days were accomplished” (Luke 1:59; 2:21). Evidently “when eight days were accomplished” (or “at the end of eight days,” RSV) does not mean eight full days from the date of birth, but eight inclusive.

  4. Jeroboam II of Israel succeeded his father Jehoash in the 15th year of Amaziah of Judah (2 Kings 14:23), and Amaziah “lived after the death of Jehoash … of Israel fifteen years” (2 Kings 14:17). A modern reader would mentally add 15 to 15, reaching Amaziah’s 30th year, yet Amaziah reigned only 29 years (verse 2). Inclusive reckoning is again the most logical explanation, since 15 years, inclusive, from the 15th year is the 29th, in which he evidently died.

  5. There are other examples. When, at the death of Solomon, Rehoboam was petitioned to lighten the tax burden, he told the people to depart “for three days” (1 Kings 12:5) and then return for his decision “after three days” (2 Chronicles 10:5). They came “the third day, as the king had appointed, saying, Come to me again the third day” (1 Kings 12:12; cf. 2 Chronicles 10:12).

  6. Jesus said in Luke 13:32 And he said unto them, Go ye, and tell that fox, Behold, I cast out devils, and I do cures to day and to morrow, and the third day I shall be perfected.

  7. Exodus 19:10-11 And the LORD said unto Moses, Go unto the people, and sanctify them to day and to morrow, and let them wash their clothes, 11 And be ready against the third day: for the third day the LORD will come down in the sight of all the people upon mount Sinai.

  8. Esther asked the Jews of Shushan to fast, and by implication, to pray, for her before she went in to the king unbidden, and then she approached the king “on the third day” (Esther 4:16; 5:1). Obviously a period of “three days” ended on the third day, not after the completion of the three days, as we would reckon it.

  9. The Pharisees did not call a high day “the Sabbath”. They called it “a Sabbath”. All days called “the Sabbath” in the New Testament (39 times in the Greek text) referred to the weekly Sabbath.

  10. An Egyptian inscription recording the death of a priestess on the 4th day of the 12th month relates that her successor arrived on the 15th, “when 12 days had elapsed.” Today, we would say that when 12 days had elapsed after the 4th, the date would be the 16th.

  11. The Greeks followed the same inclusive method. They called the Olympiad, or the four-year period between the Olympic Games, a pentaeteris (five-year period), and used other similar numerical terms

  12. The Romans also, in common usage, reckoned inclusively; they had nundinae (from nonus, ninth), or market days, every ninth day, inclusive, actually every eight days, as indicated on ancient calendars by the letters, A through H.

  13. Modern vestiges in the West are the phrase “eight days,” meaning a week in some European languages; I hope these help.

  14. Also, read John 4. In that chapter Jesus meets the Samaritan woman whom gives a drink of water. In verse 40 says Jesus abode in her village for two days (John 4:40) and yet in John 4:43 it claims that Jesus departed after two days. I can prove elsewhere that "after three days" which appears in Mark three times in reference to Jesus's resurrection was equivalent to "the third day" in Matthew and Luke.

  15. John 20:26 says, "after eight days" the disciples were again gathered in the room when Jesus appeared amongst them. Scholars claim "after eight days" was an expression meaning a week later (i.e. Sunday to Sunday). Again, inclusive counting.

  16. It is important to note that Mark 8:31, 9:31, and 10:34 claim Jesus would rise "after three days". Yet, when you compare the same accounts in Matthew and Luke in a good Harmony of the Gospels you will see "after three days" is interchangeable with "the third day".

  17. Here is a definition of day from the Jewish Encyclopedia. https://tinyurl.com/3xy5p3ve

Many of the above are culled from the website for inclusive counting. https://www.wednesdaycrucifixion.com/inclusive-reckoning.html

  • The Sabbath was never considered or counted in this way. It was always a full period from sunset to sunrise. Ironic how the Jews would count days to know the Sabbath idiomatically in order to observe Sabbath without idiom. Ironic how the Biblical definition of "day" means one thing when counting the six days but something different and unchanging when observing the Sabbath. Arriving at the Sabbath can be idiomatic but no idiom is acceptable for observing the Sabbath. BTW are the "non Sabbath" days of no work observed from sunset to sunset or as partial periods? – Revelation Lad Dec 21 '23 at 15:37
  • A sabbath is 24 hours. A Tuesday is 24 hours. A Thursday is 24 hours. But if an event occurs at 3pm on Saturday, then that event (the birth of a child) then that day is the first day of the event. Heck, Friday is 24 hours but when Jesus died at 3pm that day that day was counted as the first day of his death. You make claims you cannot sustain. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 21 '23 at 16:53
  • Notice Jesus rose from the dead on the third day, even though the day was still in progress. So, even though it was a fraction of a day, it is still considered as if a day is passed and is called the third day. If someone dies at 11 am Sabbath morning, that is the first day of the event being counted. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 21 '23 at 17:00
  • Read Jewish definition for day. http://tinyurl.com/bdzmzff9 – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 21 '23 at 17:02
  • Notice it makes no exceptions for Sabbath when counting days from the terminus a quo to the terminus ad quem. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 21 '23 at 17:03
  • By the way, it doesn't matter if a portion of the Sabbath could be counted as a day or not, because Jesus was in the tomb the whole Sabbath, from sunset to sunset. I do not contest this. So it is irrelevant to this discussion. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 21 '23 at 17:13
  • Interesting position. Completely dismiss how things are done every day and week before and after the death, burial, and resurrection in order to know what happened during Unleavened Bread in the one and only year the death, burial, and resurrection took place. – Revelation Lad Dec 21 '23 at 18:27
  • It is YOU who are completely dismissing how Jews counted days inclusively. Read again the link I sent you above on how Jews reckoned days. I take the word of the Jews and how they counted their own days inclusively over your words about how the Jews counted exclusively. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 21 '23 at 19:26
  • Yes, a Sabbath is from sunset to sunset. Jesus was in the tomb on the Sabbath day, from sunset to sunset. But if someone was born just an hour before sunset on Saturday, that was counted as a day. The following Friday he/she would be seven days old. I don't know what you mean Sabbaths are never a complete day. Jesus spent the whole Sabbath reposing in the grave. If someone was born or died at 3pm Saturday that would count as day one. Jews counted their days inclusively. See my link above to the Jewish Encyclopedia's definition of Day. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 22 '23 at 01:07
  • We are in agreement: a Sabbath is from sunset to sunset. So how is Sabbaths less than two sunset to sunset. I'm not going to locate events which need to be placed before, during, or after Sabbaths before answering this fundamental question about the Sabbath. You want to count days inclusively. That's fine, but no where does the Bible say a Sabbath may be treated as something less than sunset to sunset. – Revelation Lad Dec 22 '23 at 13:52
  • There is less than two sunsets when one is either born or dies at 11am, 2pm, or 4pm, and so on. Then, that Sabbath is counted as day one in the event to be counted, with the sunset that ends the day. The Bible doesn’t say anything about a Sabbath must be treated as something with more than one sunset but sunset to sunset but it doesn’t say anything about any day of the week may be treated as something less than sunset. The Jews counted inclusively. That means part of a Sabbath can be counted as a day. Or a part of a Monday, or for part of a Wednesday. And so on. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 22 '23 at 15:52
  • In the Jewish definition of a day in the Jewish Encyclopedia they state that even if a child is born with mere minutes left in the day then that day is counted as day one. The eighth day is counted as the eighth day as it is still in progress. https://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/5007-day – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 22 '23 at 15:54
  • We agree on this point: what is the Sabbath, a period of time which begins at sunset (not before) and ends at sunset (not before or after). Unfortunately, what is clear in the singular, evaporates when the singular becomes plural. – Revelation Lad Dec 22 '23 at 16:05
  • We don't agree on the meaning of the plural Sabbaths. Scholars better than me and you claim it can be translated as week. I don't always agree with the scholars but there are only three options of what "first of the Sabbaths" is and I believe the third option that it means "first of the week." That would be Sunday. It is what scholars claim is an idiom. Study some on idioms with Dr. Google and you will see in many languages there are some things that literally make no sense in their literal writing and are known as idiom. It seems you can't accept an idiom in the Greek language. – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 22 '23 at 16:37
  • Maybe you have another option than these three 1) Plural of the Sabbaths mean there were more than one Sabbath the weekend Jesus died. 2) It means the first Sabbath of the seven Sabbath countdown to Shavuot and 3) it is an idiom referring to the "first of the week." When I use "first of the week" the word "day" after first is assumed. In the Greek there is not a "first" in Matthew 28:1 but "one" of the Sabbaths which is fuel for those who claim it was the first of the seven Sabbath countdown toward Shavuot (Pentecost). – Saber Truth Tiger Dec 22 '23 at 16:42
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The first thing I would remind you is that Hebrews counted days differently:

Rabbi Eleazar ben Azariah, tenth in the generations of Ezra said: "A day and a night are an Onah ['a portion of time'] and the portion of an Onah is like the whole" [J.Talmud, Shabbat 9.3 and b.Talmud, Pesahim 4a]

Secondly, I suggest you give a reading to this old article about Jonah that tackles the three days and three nights motif in Semitic and Greco-Roman context:

...the expression "three days and three nights" is seen to reflect the conception that death is permanent only after a body has shown no sigus of animation for a period of three days, the idea being that until that time had elapsed, the soul was conceived as still lingering near the individual, encouraging the hope of revival. There are references to this idea in rabbinical litera ture, though it is actually much older, antedating the hellenistic era. E. Freistedt finds evidence for it not only in the Persian Vendidad (19, 90 ff.), which he dates to the 4th centary Bc., but also possibily (though not as explicitly) presupposed in Homer's lind, which could well mean it goes back to the beginning of the first millennium B.C if not carlier. In the NT sach a conception seems to underlie Martha's comment ta Jesus that Latarus had already been in the tomb frar daye (John 11 30; cf. vs. 17), the implication being that Lazarus' revival was deemed totally out of the question..."The Descent of Inanna to the Nether World," as most recently translated by S. N. Kramer, Inanna instructs her divine minister, Ninshubur, to set up an elaborate lament for her after she has departed for the underworld. The purpose of the lament is par ticularly to enlist the divine aid of Enlil, Nana, and Enki to effect her return, in the event she fails to reappear within a certain period of time. Interestingly, the time Ninakubur is to delay before beginning the lament is not specified in Inanna's instructions to him, which state simply: "When I shall have come to the nether world, set up a lament for me by the rainm..." (Part 11, lines 30-34). There follows then the text of the lament, the account of Inanna's departure and reception into the lowe realm,culminating in her death at the hands of the goddess Ereshkigal. It is at this paint the text then reads: "After three days (and) three nights had passed, her minister Nimbubur, her minister of favorable words, her knight of true words, sets up a lament for her by the ruins..." (lPart 11, lines 109-73). Close study of the entire contest would seem to indicate that the words "three days (and) three nights were not meant to cover the time Inanna spent in the underworld, and the phrase's complete separation from the account of Inanna's revival and ascent back to the upper wurid does not give one to understand that the implication is the goddess was "raised from the dead" after three days and three nights. This has been the most common interpretation before Kramer published the new and fuller test of the myth in 1950-51," and though now P. Notacher and S. N. Kramer offer slightly different interpretations, they do not seem to me to be any more plausible or convincing than the one now to be proposed here. And that. is, when one compares the test of Inanna's instractions to Nishubur with the account of his execution of her commands, it seema clear that Nimhubur's delay is to allow sufficient time for luanna to urries within the nether world. The "three days (and) three nights" are intended to cover the time of travel to the chthonic depths. If this interpretation is correct, and also within the OT we have definite witness to the use of the "three-day" motif in connection with a journey, including the book of Jonah (31), it would appear this is the most promising clue for understanding the full import of the words "three days and three nights" in Jonah 21. They are wed to indicate the period of time it took the fish to bring Jonsh bark from the Deep, understood more explicitly in the following pralm as the nether world (cf. 27). Thus, just as Inanna required three days and three nights to complete her descent into the underworld, so also the fish is assigned the same time spas to return Jonah from Sheul to the dry land. The temporal motif would stress the distance and separation of the upper from the nether realms. Landes, G. M. (1967). The “Three Days and Three Nights” Motif in Jonah 2:1. Journal of Biblical Literature, 86(4), 446–450.

agarza
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