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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation?

John 1:1

New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

New Living Translation In the beginning the Word already existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

English Standard Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

New American Standard Bible In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God

I am specifically asking why the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a "proper noun"(if the Greek is qualitative in sense) in English Translation?

Dick Harfield
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R. Brown
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  • Please clarify if you meant something other than what was already asked and answered in the other. Thanks. – Susan Mar 21 '15 at 10:13
  • @Susan, I am specifically asking why the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a "proper noun" (if the Greek is qualitative in sense) in English Translation? The reason i asked is that i don't really know anything scholarly on this yet. – R. Brown Mar 21 '15 at 10:24
  • I think the top answer on the linked question argues that it is definite, though, and the definite θεός is always translated as proper in the NT as far as I know. – Susan Mar 21 '15 at 10:45
  • @Susan, In what sense it is 'definite'? Like the 'ton theon' in John 1:1b? – R. Brown Mar 21 '15 at 11:34
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    I think maybe you’re looking at this, and it’s true that Wallace has argued that it’s not definite (p. 268 there) - an argument he acknowledges is unusual, and one that disagrees with the top answer on the question I linked. I still think it’s essentially the same question, though. – Susan Mar 22 '15 at 03:21
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    (cont.) The difference between “a god” and “God” in English is both one of definiteness and of proper vs common, and it seems unnecessary to create another question just because that part of it hasn’t been addressed adequately in your view (and you may be right!). Another answer there deals with Wallace’s argument more specifically, and this one also demonstrates an appreciation for the “qualitative” nuance - either of those authors may be willing to expand to address your question if you comment. – Susan Mar 22 '15 at 03:23
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    @Susan, Thanks for your response.I have learned a lot. – R. Brown Mar 23 '15 at 11:33

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