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Genesis 3:16

NIV - To the woman he said, "I will make your pains in childbearing very severe; with painful labor you will give birth to children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you."

GWT - He said to the woman, "I will increase your pain and your labor when you give birth to children. Yet, you will long for your husband, and he will rule you."

NLT - Then he said to the woman, "I will sharpen the pain of your pregnancy, and in pain you will give birth. And you will desire to control your husband, but he will rule over you."

Looking at these translations, we can see two contrasting types of desire given to Eve as a curse from God.

  1. Sexual desire: Though Eve will give birth with great pain, she will still desire to have sex with her husband and will keep on repeating the painful birth. This is possible because some say that women enjoy sex more than men(though I would like to give some source, I think such topic is too explicit for this site).
  2. Desire for power: Eve will try to rule over Adam but as man is given more physical strength, Eve will be overpowered and ruled by her husband.

What kind of desire was given to Eve?

Mawia
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  • The Bible is often explicit. Song of Songs for example is basically erotic fiction (or prose really) making it the closest thing to porn you could get at the time. Let the text take you wherever it leads. Human Sexuality does not need to be more taboo, but let's keep it clinical. – James Shewey Aug 29 '14 at 18:12
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    Option #2 is supported by the appearance of the same construction in the very next chapter (Gen. 4:7). – Jas 3.1 Sep 01 '14 at 02:35
  • @JamesShewey Porn existed in biblical times, and the Song of Songs is not porn; cf. my answer here. – Geremia Nov 19 '17 at 22:53
  • Not all versions translate it as "desire". For example, Gen. 13:16 of St. Jerome's Vulgate says: "sub viri potestate eris" (Douay: "thou shalt be under thy husband's power"). The LXX uses "αποστροφή" ("submission"). – Geremia Nov 19 '17 at 23:51
  • @Geremia, considering photography and cinematography did not exist, I find the claim that Pornography existed in Biblical times to be spurious. There is no concrete evidence that carvings, drawings and depictions of sexual acts in antiquity were intended to arouse and most scholars instead think that carvings were idols and depictions were usually advertising services. I also did not say SOS was porn, I said it was erotic prose. If you wish to discuss further however, you should probably start a chat as this is getting off-topic. – James Shewey Nov 20 '17 at 05:33
  • @Bach Yes, it is the same verse. The other question asks what kind of desire is given. This question focuses on whether the desire was given as part of the curse or not, and its relation to man ruling over woman. If the question is flagged for closure, the community will have to make that call. – Martin Hemsley Oct 31 '21 at 04:33
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    This is too hot for me - I will resist answering this but observe that the word "desire" only occurs 3 times, and one of them is SS 7:10 where the man desires the woman. The only other times is Gen 4:7 where sin desires to master Cain. – Dottard Oct 31 '21 at 10:56
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    @martin I'm well aware, that's why I didn't vote to close, just pointing out to the OP that the discussion in the above thread may be helpful. – bach Oct 31 '21 at 21:07

10 Answers10

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As far as I know, the only other place in the Old Testament where this same Hebrew term ("desire for you") is used, is in the next chapter, when God speaks to Cain.

"If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin is crouching at the door. Its desire is for you, but you must rule over it.” (Genesis 4:7, ESV)

In the literary context, this would refer to control, rather than sexual desire. The inference would be that the woman would want to exert control over the man after the Fall, and this would result in a struggle for control in the relationship between them. Speaking anecdotally, this seems to be the case.

briangardner
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    @briangardner I essentially agree with this answer, except I believe that much more can be said. Obviously, Satan used the 'divide and conquer' method, dividing Adam and Eve, and putting Adam in the position of choosing his mate or God. The judgment on Eve is obviously her need to rely on Adam, yet to Eve is made the promise of "her seed" will destroy the serpent(Satan) who tricked her, reverting the effect of the lie that caused her to fall. – Tau Sep 05 '14 at 08:01
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    @Tau agreed. One argument I read against this is that each person only gets one curse and this would be two for the woman. But I think this misunderstands the nature of v16. It's not a curse, it's prophecy. It also misses the pattern and flow: Serpent cursed to earth, doomed to a struggle with the woman's seed that he will lose, woman's curse in childbirth, doomed to struggle with man that she will lose, man cursed with labor to provide for woman and child,, will struggle to live but will lose and die eventually. In all three there is curse and struggle. – Joshua May 03 '16 at 11:24