It is my understanding that separable prefix is supposed to go the end of the clause it is in, right?
So in the sentence, Warum kommst du nicht mit Kafee trinken? Is "Kaffee trinken" a subordinate clause? If not and there is only one clause in this whole sentence, what is the explanation behind it?
"Separable prefixes go to the end of the clause EXCEPT [whatever rule it is that makes "mit" occupy the position before "Kafee trinken"]?
Alle bringen etwas zu essen oder zu trinken mit. The same question applies here, what is the grammatical difference between "Kaffee trinken" and "etwas zu essen oder zu trinken"? Besides, "zu" I don't see any difference at all: [Noun/pronoun] + zu + [infinitive]
So why does "mit" precede one and follow the other?
EDIT: I think I may have figured out the answer: In the first sentence, "kaffee trinken kommen" is a 2-verb combination http://www.dartmouth.edu/~deutsch/Grammatik/WordOrder/MainClauses.html
And separable prefix precedes the final infinitive. So, She comes with to shop would be Sie kommt mit einkaufen and NOT Sie kommt einkaufen mit. True?
It turns out that separable prefix doesn't actually go into the end of the clause as several members confirmed that sentence to be a single clause after which I asked very clearly, so what is the rule here?
Separable prefixes precede [insert the answer here], which noone even attempted. I'm happy to delete the original question if it goes against any rules but someone mistakenly linked this one to it unfortunately
– Unrivalled confusion May 01 '18 at 22:40Am I missing something here?
– Unrivalled confusion May 01 '18 at 22:47