9

Il pleut, il neige, il fait froid, il fait beau, il faut, etc. can such phrases be inverted? Are these legitimate sentences?

Pleut-il? Neige-t-il? Fait-il froid? Fait-il beau? Me faut-il un crayon?

Even if it is grammatically allowed, is it natural/normal/common? Or very rare?

Stéphane Gimenez
  • 30,422
  • 13
  • 71
  • 152
temporary_user_name
  • 18,579
  • 23
  • 98
  • 232

2 Answers2

8

It is not only possible but is the canonical formal (or written) way to ask those questions; being a placeholder pronoun is not an obstacle to inversion. That said, it is very uncommon and would sound overly formal or charmingly old-fashioned in most contexts. So you are safe using them, but would probably get you spotted as a non-native speaker. The usual forms are built on “​est-ce que

Est-ce qu'il pleut ?
Est-ce qu'il neige ?
Est-ce qu'il y a quelqu'un ?

or even

Il pleut ?

discarding est-ce que and relying on intonation to denote the interrogative nature.

But remember that this only applies to oral and that inversion is the canonical form for writing.

Evpok
  • 20,004
  • 7
  • 70
  • 137
6

As a French, I would say that all these sentences sound (actually are) correct.

Pleut-il ? Neige-t-il ? Fait-il froid ? Fait-il beau ? Me faut-il un crayon ?

as well as

Est-ce qu'il pleut ? Est-ce qu'il neige ? etc.

I would personally rather use

Est-ce qu'il me faut un crayon ?

than

Me faut-il un crayon ?

when talking to somebody. But both are OK. The latter would sound more formal. The former is more casual.

Also, dois-je prendre un crayon ? could be more natural, but that's just a way of saying it.

Stéphane Gimenez
  • 30,422
  • 13
  • 71
  • 152
Jean
  • 506
  • 3
  • 7