3

What does the "y" stand for in "Je m'y attendais"? There's no À, and it certainly does not mention some place there. So why is there a "Y"?

Stéphane Gimenez
  • 30,422
  • 13
  • 71
  • 152

1 Answers1

7

Personal pronoun "y" can replace something that is indirect object to a verb whose indirect object is introduced by preposition "à".

A verb phrase :

A- Il pleut.
B- Je m'y attendais, il y avait de gros nuages noirs.

A noun :

A- Voilà la pluie.
B- Je m'y attendais, il y avait de gros nuages noirs.

The verb is "s'attendre à". We could react to "Il pleut" with:

Je m'attendais à ce qu'il pleuve.

and to "Voilà la pluie" with :

Je m'attendais à la pluie.

we will usually replace "à ce qu'il pleuve" or "à la pluie" by personal pronoun "y" placed just before the verb.

None
  • 61,543
  • 4
  • 94
  • 192
  • y can replace more than just verb phrases. – Vlammuh Apr 16 '16 at 06:47
  • 3
    Obviously. And this is not a complete grammar course about the use of "y". This is an answer to OP's question. – None Apr 16 '16 at 06:51
  • That may be true, but how can you be sure it replaced a verb phrase in this case without the OP having given context? – Vlammuh Apr 16 '16 at 06:53
  • @Sander Read Laure's reply closer, she wrote "can replace" not "does replace". – jlliagre Apr 16 '16 at 07:07
  • @jlliagre I am aware of that. What I'm just trying to say is that, though it is a completely correct answer, it might give the OP the impression that a verb phrase is the only thing y could have replaced in this sentence. – Vlammuh Apr 16 '16 at 07:09
  • @Sander Point taken, I'll expand a little. – None Apr 16 '16 at 07:49
  • The personal pronoun Y. I think if you're giving grammar explanations, your grammar should be right.... – Lambie Apr 16 '16 at 12:54
  • 1
    @Lambie: Just fix it if you're bothered. English grammar is not the topic here. – Stéphane Gimenez Apr 16 '16 at 14:57
  • Am I the only one who think y avoir (as presented in il y avait) is different from other uses of y? – iBug Apr 03 '19 at 16:51