Is it usual to contract would (e.g. Adam'd) after proper nouns?

Asked May 25 '20 at 12:53

Active May 25 '20 at 12:53

Viewed 42 times

I'm met with a tricky question, though not so essential I'd still like to know if places or peoples names can be joined by modal verbs.

I'm certain Adam wouldn't mind:

to Adam'd not mind.

Also I'd just like to clarify that it's to be used in a poetic context.

Thank you!

asked May 25 '20 at 12:53

Ghose Bishwajit

1

It's certainly acceptable verbally in certain dialects - pronounced "Adam'ud not mind" - but it's never acceptable in writing. It took me a moment to parse "Adam'd" and realise that it corresponded to a dialectical pronunciation of "Adam would", rather than an archaic spelling of the past participle (i.e. something like "Adammed"). – Steve May 25 '20 at 13:48
There are a few written instances of I'd not mind if (blah blah) in Google Books, but they're dwarfed by *I wouldn't mind if...* – FumbleFingers May 25 '20 at 13:52
2

Poetry doesn't follow the same conventions of grammar. You can pretty much write how you like. – Jason Bassford May 25 '20 at 14:57
1

Personally, I think it's alright if the name ends in a vowel. Adam'd is a little awkward. – Micah Windsor May 25 '20 at 16:14
@JasonBassford Thanks...for the answer I was expecting to hear. My day is made. – Ghose Bishwajit May 25 '20 at 18:18

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