The English verb "there be" in its various forms "there were," "there is," "there are," "there will be," etc. are equivalent to the Spanish verb "haber" in its forms "hubo," "hay," "habrá," etc.
Technically, when used in this way, "there" is an adverb (some say it is a noun or expletive, but I disagree). But "there" is also an adverb with an entirely different meaning and, for at least some native speakers, a different pronunciation when used to designate location: "We went there for our honeymoon."
So is "there be" classified as a phrasal verb of the form "adverb + verb"?
ADDENDUM: Does anyone know when this form arose in English?