I have a question about the pronunciation between “I die” and “I’d die”. If I consider linking words and link the “d” in “I’d and the d in “die”, the pronunciation of I DIE and I’D DIE would be the same. Would I only get either by the context?
Thank u.
My guess is that most native English speakers speaking colloquially will connect the [d] in "I'd" with the [d] in "die". What happens is that in "I'd die", you get a geminate: the [d] sound is held longer before being spat out.
On the other hand, the [d] sound remains short in "I die".
That said, an English speaker could certainly separate these two words and create a small gap between them: the [d] at the end of "I'd" would them be released before the "die" is pronounced. You'd get something like "I-duh-die". But unless the speaker is trying to speak very slowly, normally a speaker will connect consecutive words.
Although many English speakers may not be able to describe the difference in sound between these words, it is quite clear when you hear them together.
