0

vertex --> vertices

matrix --> matrices

vortex --> vortices

complex --> complexes

I don't see the pattern. It's not -ix versus -ex, so is there a rule (or at least linguistic explanation) for why some words take ces and some words take xes?

herisson
  • 81,803

1 Answers1

0

Jesse Williams is on the right track. I've had 8 years of Latin, and the problem lies with the evolution of a language. The Internet has caused English to evolve (some would say become corrupted) at the fastest rate it has ever had.

So, what is "correct" now depends on common usage and ultimate what the folks at M&W think is time to add to their dictionary, unfortunately...

BTW, from my classical education, it is 'prefixes' and 'mutices' which are correct. Just because that is how they ended up being used for many decades (or longer).

  • 'Mutex' has never been other than an English word. 'Mutices' would be a quasi-Latin plural, and as sensible as 'Tex Smith and Tex Jones met in Houston; the Tices became firm friends.' – Edwin Ashworth Aug 17 '16 at 19:26
  • Because "Tex" in your stated context is a proper noun, the "ices" rule would not apply and it would be "Tex's". –  Aug 17 '16 at 19:38
  • 1
  • These Google Ngrams indicate that some shifts towards the Anglicisation of Latin-style plurals began as early as 1902. – Edwin Ashworth Aug 17 '16 at 20:19
  • I'm confused lol... this site is giving me a headache. It was a nice diversion though ;) Thanks for the thoughts Edwin. –  Aug 17 '16 at 20:24
  • I do have a problem with what the ngrams show. Just because people are refusing to follow grammatical rules, does not mean it is right. The correct plural of antenna is antennae... not antennas. If we don't maintain standards of grammar and English, why do we even bother with schools, or education??? –  Aug 17 '16 at 20:58
  • 1
    But rules have been changing for centuries. Who decides which particular set are the ones to use? 'Those I was taught' is obviously an arrogation. Geoff Pullum, virtually the Grammar Czar, says "If there's a knock at the door, and the reply to 'Who is it?' is 'It is I, ...', don't let them in – it's nobody you want to know." But doesn't the copula require the subjective? We've had this prescriptivist - descriptivist discussion many times on ELU. It gets rather tiring. – Edwin Ashworth Aug 17 '16 at 21:22
  • Actually, people refusing to follow grammatical rules is what ultimately alters those rules. That's why modern English isn't the same as Middle English, which wasn't the same as Old English. It's not like grammarians just got together and threw the rules out the window to start anew. – Jesse Williams Aug 17 '16 at 23:03
  • @Edwin et Jesse: This site is FULL of arrogation... that's the pot calling the kettle black! Aside from that, it was my point that the rules are always changing even though I lamented they stop. So, in that spirit of change, there is absolutely nothing wrong with going against the change and bringing the inertia back toward an older method or teaching. Methinks this site is now really a waste then... since all these arrogations of what is "correct" are really moot... it's all gonna change anyway so nobody is really correct here. Wow... just realized the meaning of "waste of time" lol –  Aug 18 '16 at 14:10
  • And Jesse, I'd add that people refusing to follow the rules is really an indicator of perpetual common ignorance and how humanity's intelligence is collectively dropping a few points every decade :( Granted, languages "evolve"... but that's only because people are in effect lazy, ignorant, or just plain stupid! I love America! lol :) –  Aug 18 '16 at 14:13
  • If you're really serious about getting back to the original, you should consider using Ancient Greek or Beakerfolkish. But please don't then confuse people visiting ELU to enquire about modern English usage. – Edwin Ashworth Aug 18 '16 at 16:21
  • Well, I actually DO speak both LATIN and GREEK. Do you? –  Aug 22 '16 at 15:20