1

Please look at the following sentence and tell me which sentence is correct?

1) "I play viola well for someone having taught themselves"

and

2) "I play viola well for someone having taught themself"

And

3) "I play viola well for someone having taught myself"

Thank you.

Policewala
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    Not 1,because presumably you're only one person. #2 and #3 are okay, with #2 being better or more logical. But I'd use himself or herself, matching the gender to I. – Alan Carmack May 14 '16 at 02:30
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    First is wrong because of number disagreement. Second is correct. Use "himself" instead of "myself" third sentence. – vickyace May 14 '16 at 02:36
  • For an excellent discussion of themselves and themself, see http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/216617/the-hidden-flaw-in-singular-they-what-to-do-about-reflexive-pronouns. What I take from that discussion is that you can use either 1) or 2). As for 3), either "for having taught myself" or "for someone having taught himself/herself." – ab2 May 14 '16 at 02:38

2 Answers2

2

"I play viola well for someone self-taught."

or

"I play viola well for someone who is self-taught."

Drew
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1

I think the best option is "I play viola well for someone having taught himself" (or "herself" if the speaker is female). You can also use "themselves" to be gender-neutral. "Myself" is incorrect because the pronoun refers to "someone", so it should be in the third person. "Themself" is not universally recognized as a valid word, so it should probably be avoided, at least in formal settings.

Here's a citing from Webster's Third New International Dictionary, Unabridged showing the "himself/herself" sense of "themselves":

3: himself, herself — used with a singular antecedent that is indefinite or that does not specify gender

Andy Schweig
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