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Is this proper usage ? seems to me "perfect" is like "best" (it can't be more or less "perfect or "best").

herisson
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This is a colloquial expression and is acceptable in that context, but it would be inappropriate in formal English. Similarly, you might say, "There ain't no good in him." You would be understood to mean that he was no good, but this would not be acceptable in formal English, both because of the word, "ain't" and because, due to the double negative, you have actually said that he was good.

Benjamin Wade
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    "We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union...". The Preamble to the Constitution is formal writing. Also, "ain't no" is not a double negative. The no plays the exact same role as any in Standard English. Which is why you were able to understand it correctly in the first place. It is dishonest to then pretend you shouldn't have. Lastly, ain't has been used in poetry forever. It is as venerable as it gets. But anyway, none of that has anything to do with the question at hand. You can just say "inappropriate in formal English" and leave it at that. – RegDwigнt May 01 '14 at 17:11