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I believe that to infinitive as a subject can be replaced by a gerund form, which is why

To get up early is good.

always has the same meaning as

Getting up early is good.

But a colleague of mine tells me this isn't always the case. I did not have a chance to have him elaborate on that. He cited the following sentence:

Neglecting others means ignoring

and only said that because of 'ignoring', you cannot use 'to neglect' instead of 'neglecting'.

Is he right? If so, why?

Kris
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2 Answers2

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The point your colleague is making is that you shouldn't mix forms. This is perhaps best explained using examples:

Correct:

Neglecting means ignoring.

To neglect means to ignore.

Incorrect:

Neglecting means to ignore.

To neglect means ignoring.

terdon
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Neglecting others means ignoring [them].

I think you mean an object there, or the sentence would sound odd to my ear. In most cases where the gerund or infinite is the subject of object of a verb, you can replace one with the other (I can't think of an exception).

However, a gerund can be the object of a preposition, while an infinite normally cannot:

After conquering Athens, Augustus paused.

After *to conquer Athens...

There are also many verbs that only take one or the other. Lastly, there are cases where the two have different meanings:

Cleopatra stopped looking at Marc Athony. = "She had been looking at him but now began doing something else."

Cleopatra stopped to look at Marc Athony. = "She stopped doing whatever she was doing in order to look at him."

  • In stop to look, to is not the infinitive-marker - it is the to that is the equivalent of the French 'pour', 'in order to'. Compare I have come to see your father and contrast I have come to see the complexities involved in these structures. – Edwin Ashworth Jun 20 '13 at 19:15
  • @EdwinAshworth: Yes, you could say that (although they have the same origin, and they cannot always be distinguished). – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Jun 20 '13 at 23:30
  • I came in order to see your father is not an example of catenation. I tried to see your father is. "It is most important to distinguish between a real catenative verb, such as decide I decided to work. and a normal verb followed by an infinitive of purpose (French: pour)" ( http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Appendix:English_catenative_verbs ) – Edwin Ashworth Jun 21 '13 at 19:29
  • @EdwinAshworth: So what are you arguing here? What do you want me to do or say? – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Jun 21 '13 at 19:45
  • Your statements 'There are also many verbs that only take one or the other. Lastly, there are cases where the two have different meanings:' grossly over-simplify the different catenative (see at http://www.wordwizard.com/phpbb3/viewtopic.php?f=6&t=23577&hilit=phase+stood , for example) and non-catenative (as at the link above) verb + en-form and verb + ing-form structures. – Edwin Ashworth Jun 21 '13 at 21:49
  • @EdwinAshworth: "Grossly", really? Why? The question didn't seem to ask for linguistic theories. Nor did it ask about the differences between kinds of to + inf. or kinds of gerunds. Wasn't the way I explained it appropriate for the way the question was phrased? Is anything I said factually incorrect or inconsistent? If so, you are welcome to edit my answer. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Jun 21 '13 at 22:22