Repeated "to" in "to whom something is done to"?

Question

Is there a rule for this? For example, is it correct to say

To whom will the package be delivered?

or does it have to be

To whom will the package be delivered to?

I'm sorry if this is a duplicate, I didn't know how to properly search for this construction.

Not too bad. Redundancies like that one sometimes go unnoticed. — Victor Bazarov, Oct 19 '15 at 18:48
While I agree, and while even native speakers make this error, I do think it makes you sound uneducated. — Jonah, Oct 19 '15 at 20:34
The alternatives you are most likely to hear, though, are "to whom will the package be delivered?" or "who will the package be delivered to, or even "whom will the package be delivered to" -- I'd bet (but cannot prove) that the version with double "to"s would be pretty uncommon. — vstrong, Oct 19 '15 at 21:17
@Jasper It looks pretty good. I might add some stuff about why it's called 'pied-piping', unless you want to do that. — StoneyB on hiatus, Jan 02 '16 at 19:12

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered Oct 23 '15 at 13:33

Only one "to" in needed.

To whom will the package be delivered?

Adding another "to" at the end is grammatically incorrect. Also, sentences should generally not end in a preposition, though a native speaker is likely to say:

Who will the package be delivered to?

In an informal setting, the second sentence is preferable if spoken; the first might make you sound pretentious, at least in America. Some teach that ending a sentence with a preposition is always grammatically incorrect, which is a vestige of Latin influence and is debatable.

I'd prefer the latter in a formal setting too. – James Webster Oct 23 '15 at 13:43 — James Webster, Oct 23 '15 at 13:43

Repeated "to" in "to whom something is done to"?

1 Answers1