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What is the difference between

I spoke to him.

and

I have spoken to him.

Does the former mean at this moment and the latter mean it had happened in the past?

Appreciate insight into this.

pyobum
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Jacob
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5 Answers5

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I spoke to him is using the simple past tense, which means the action is over. On the other hand I have spoken to him is using the Present perfect tense. Such tense is usually used when a past action or event is connected with the present. I'd understand you've had several conversations with him and likely will have more. Just bear in mind to use the auxiliary verb for questions: Does the former mean

Laurel
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Fábio Lopes da Silva
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  • for "such tense", we'd use: A tense like this. The present perfect merely signals the past in relation to the present and not when. – Lambie Mar 30 '23 at 20:48
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"I spoke to him" (past tense) refers to an event in past time (yesterday, a week ago, a year ago). "I have spoken to him" (present perfect) refers to the momentary situation. A young employee plans to talk with his superior about a pay rise. The father may ask "Have you spoken to him?" (A question referring to the momentary situation). And the answer may be: "Yes, I have spoken to him."

rogermue
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I spoke to him -is a simple past and it used for the actions that happened in the past.

I have spoken to him or I've spoken to him -is a present perfect and it used for the action that happened in the past continues in the present .

Using time expression. I spoke to him yesterday.

I've spoken to him for 3years I've spoken to him since 2015

Nice guy
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"I have spoken" means "It has already been done" and is coonected with the present situation. "I spoke..." refers to the time completed in the past.

Liudmyla Komarova
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It's a shame when on a language site the wrong answer gets most upvotes. I hope it's just a typo by the commenter. "I have spoke to him" is not proper English grammar and the wrong use of the past tense in the present perfect. "I have spoken to him" is the right answer for present tense or "I spoke to him" for present perfect (below explained). I hear more and more people using the past tense wrongly and using it instead of present perfect. I hear especially young people saying things like "I have ate" or "I have went", when it should be "I have eaten" and "I have gone".

Another commenter also writes bad grammar: "I've spoken to him for 3years" I strongly doubt you did, must have been a bloody long conversation then.. "For 3 years" is a specified timespan. When using the present perfect simple, there is no specified timespan to mention, only general time indication like never, always, so far, etc. ("I have NOT spoken to him for 3 years" also means no specified timeframe) In this case the present perfect continuous would be the proper grammar: "I have been speaking to him (for x periods of time) during the past 3 years"

I find it alarming how enthousiasts are trying to figure out grammar that developed for hundreds of years before it became like it is today, furthermore can be looked up easily in any dictionary (e.g. Cambridge) instead of a forum site, where people start adopting popular opinion among laymen instead of proper grammar.

As for the answer to the question: These are different "tenses" in the English language with different meaning. "I spoke to him": past simple, meaning that something happened at one point in the past. It is usually followed by an indication of the time, e.g. "I spoke to him yesterday evening". "I have spoken to him": present perfect simple, meaning that what happened in the past connects the present. There is no time specified, but often a general sense of time is mentioned, e.g. "I have never spoken to him before" or "I haven't spoken to him so far". (the word "simple" means that it is not "continuous", for example "present perfect continuous" would be "I have been speaking to him", describing a timeline)

Master Pep
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  • Since "I have spoke" isn't found anywhere else on the page, I assumed it was a typo and fixed it in that answer. As for the other answer ("3years"), it seems to just be wrong. – Laurel Mar 30 '23 at 18:17
  • You wrote: "I have spoken to him" is the right answer for present tense or "I spoke to him" for present perfect (below explained). The first is present perfect and the second is simple past. As for "I've spoken to him for three years", it is actually fine. It is not a continuous thing throughout the three years. – Lambie Mar 30 '23 at 20:51