I came across this sentence:
"It may not have been delivered yet"
I can't understand: why is "have" used here with "it"?
Asked
Active
Viewed 2.0k times
12
CowperKettle
- 36,571
- 17
- 132
- 226
Andriy Fedyshyn
- 123
- 1
- 1
- 5
-
1Maulik, what he probably means is why it doesn't cause have to turn into its third-person singular form, has: "It may not has been delivered yet". – CowperKettle Aug 04 '14 at 06:41
-
what is the source? – Maulik V Aug 04 '14 at 06:42
-
1Okay, that's because of may. It takes have and never has. – Maulik V Aug 04 '14 at 06:56
-
1"why is 'have' used here with 'it'" It's not! "May" is used here with "it". "Have" is used here with "may". Read all the words – Lightness Races in Orbit Aug 04 '14 at 07:34
1 Answers
15
"It may not have been delivered yet"
The sentence uses have instead of has because the verb to have is attached here to may, a modal verb. When we have a construction of the type modal verb + another verb, we put the second verb in the infinitive form (without to):
She goes to the dentist today.
but
She may go (not may goes!) to the dentist today. (go is used in the infinitive form without to).
CowperKettle
- 36,571
- 17
- 132
- 226
-
1
-
-
hey...wow.. you know a bit of it or the whole language? :) nice to hear that anyway! – Maulik V Aug 04 '14 at 08:27
-
Only this phrase. (0; Oh, and namaste, of course! My sister knows more, she had her Master's degree from JNU. – CowperKettle Aug 04 '14 at 08:33