I don't like him wasting time
vs
I don't like his wasting time
what is the difference in meaning of these two sentences
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Ramteja Guthikonda
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The first is used as a participle. In the second, the noun phrase is more usual as "I don't like his time-wasting." – Weather Vane Feb 14 '20 at 16:05
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@WeatherVane so are both correct? Could you please elaborate what does first sentence mean? – Ramteja Guthikonda Feb 14 '20 at 16:08
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In the first sentence, he is wasting time, and that is what you don't like: you don't like him [when he is] wasting time. Your second sentence is grammatical but not idiomatic. It could be said when "he is malnourished and wasting away, and I don't like those times when he is losing weight." But that isn't your intention, I am sure, to use it like "partying time" or "waiting time". – Weather Vane Feb 14 '20 at 16:12
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2Does this answer your question? When to use an object pronoun or a possessive adjective before a gerund. See also “their having a mind”, and doubtless others. – FumbleFingers Feb 14 '20 at 16:43
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@WeatherVane: I disagree. Both versions are in common use today, with no difference in meaning. – FumbleFingers Feb 14 '20 at 16:45
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1Note that in some contexts, the two are not exchangeable because they mean different things. For example: I don't like him singing while his throat is sore. And I don't like his singing; it's out of tune. – Ronald Sole Feb 14 '20 at 16:47
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You can say "I don't like his wasting of time" – SovereignSun Feb 14 '20 at 17:56
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There's no difference in meaning. In both cases "him/his wasting time" is a clause with "him"/"his" as subject and the verb phrase "wasting time" as predicate. – BillJ Feb 14 '20 at 18:09