1) They can't afford to go out very often.
2) They can't afford going out very often.
A native speaker has said that the second usage can be heard in a colloquial speech, but it is incorrect. Is it true?
1) They can't afford to go out very often.
2) They can't afford going out very often.
A native speaker has said that the second usage can be heard in a colloquial speech, but it is incorrect. Is it true?
I searched The Corpus of Contemporary American English (COCA) for both strings. Here's what I found:
afford to go 182 results
afford going 5 results
There's a strong preference for the infinitival complement, so I suggest that you use it in your own writing.
That said, I would accept the other version as grammatical. This is just my personal judgment, but Jim left a comment which agrees, so I'm not the only one. This may be part of a larger trend that some have called the Great Complement Shift, although at the moment the infinitive is still strongly favored; there isn't much evidence in favor of a shift to the gerund for this particular verb yet.
Of the five results in COCA for afford going, four are from the spoken language sub-corpus, and one is from the news sub-corpus. This, along with the relatively small number of results, supports the idea that it might be considered more colloquial.
Both are okay. Nevertheless, COCAE shows the verb afford + to + infinitive quite common similar to the examples you stated.
I think the verb afford just like love and hate takes both - gerund and infinitive after it.
They cannot afford to go out very often - used more frequently.
They cannot afford going out very often - used less frequently.
This is all about verb pattern.
Further reading here and here addressing similar concern. For particular this topic, see here.
The Collins dictionary (online) has only to afford to do. Obviously for AmE the problem is a bit different, but I would say the normal verb construction is to afford + to-infinitive. But I'm not astonished that some people in spoken language use the gerund after to afford. Simply because the borderline between to-infinitive and gerund after a verb is overlapping and the borderline that grammars draw is actually a bit arbitrary and mainly due to convention.
But people don't speak English with a grammar in their hand. And so you can hear sometimes a gerund used as object after a verb even when grammars say the normal verb construction is verb + to-infinitive.