Does a determinant ever have its own interpretation in economics?

Asked Sep 10 '17 at 21:59

Active Nov 02 '17 at 12:10

Viewed 139 times

However, is there ever an economic interpretation Just the determinant on its own? What would the scenario be?

edited Sep 12 '17 at 06:17

luchonacho

asked Sep 10 '17 at 21:59

EconJohn

Does this help? – luchonacho Sep 12 '17 at 15:06
@luchonacho it does not quite cover an economic definition – EconJohn Sep 12 '17 at 19:26
I'm not sure there is one :( – luchonacho Sep 12 '17 at 19:33
@luchonacho so why do we use it in calculating elasticity of substitution? – EconJohn Sep 12 '17 at 19:44
Let me see if I can come up with something. Surely someone has thought about this. – luchonacho Sep 12 '17 at 19:47

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