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Can you explain it in detail ?

Bob
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1 Answers1

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You have to apply the chinese remainder theorem to the ring $\prod_{1\leq i\leq r} \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$.

This ring is isomorphic to the ring $\times_{1\leq i\leq r} \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$. Let call $\phi$ this isomorphism.

Let recall that for all $x \in \prod_{1\leq i\leq r} \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$, $x \mod \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$ is the $i$th coordinate of $\phi(x)$.

Then we compute $t :=\phi^{-1}(t_1 \mod \mathfrak{p}_1^{e_{1}+1}, \dots, t_r \mod \mathfrak{p}_r^{e_{r}+1})$.

Thus $t\in \prod_{1\leq i\leq r} \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1} $ (because $\phi^{-1} : \times_{1\leq i\leq r} \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1} \rightarrow \prod_{1\leq i\leq r} \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$).

And $t\mod \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1} = \phi^{-1}(t_1 \mod \mathfrak{p}_1^{e_{1}+1}, \dots, t_r \mod \mathfrak{p}_r^{e_{r}+1}) \mod \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$ $$ = t_i \mod \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1} \mod \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1} =t_i \mod \mathfrak{p}_i^{e_{i}+1}$$

Ievgeni
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    This is the right idea, but the products of ideals in your answer (starting from the first sentence) are not rings. Instead, you should refer to the quotient rings of the ring $R$ modulo those products of ideals. – Chris Peikert Jun 26 '21 at 11:22
  • @ChrisPeikert You're right, I will modify it. – Ievgeni Jun 28 '21 at 08:19