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Blended coffee is mixed by several different kinds of coffee beans while Single Origin or SOE coffee uses only one type. Given a background where you bought a bag of blended coffee beans and now trying to grind it by yourself for a cup of morning coffee. As the bean bag was not packaged/mixed evenly, the beans you put inside the grinder are therefore not according to their "blended" percentage as expected. As a result, can I say every cup of blended is unique due to the random bean ratio, and it may have an extreme case where the blended coffee you drink is actually a Single Origin one?

chen_441
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    that appears to be more of a statistics question, maybe better suited for https://math.stackexchange.com/ . – ths Oct 18 '23 at 15:30
  • @ths Yep but this becomes a very simple question in mathematics cause everything could happen even with a extremely small probability. Anyway, thx for ur reply, and wish u have a nice cuppa coffee today :D – chen_441 Oct 20 '23 at 02:15
  • In some cases I could imagine the blend contains whole beans of two varieties that are distinguishable visually. As you are "now trying to grind it by yourself," there is the prospect of sorting the beans in a way that increases the chance of getting enough beans of a single origin to brew a cup. – hardmath Oct 20 '23 at 20:23
  • @hardmath Yes that's true. Thx buddy :D – chen_441 Oct 23 '23 at 04:44

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