2

How do those that deny the perpetual virginity of Mary explain the failure of Joseph and Mary to consummate their marriage before the birth of Jesus?

We read in the Gospel of Matthew:

He had no relations with her until she bore a son, and he named him Jesus. (Matthew 1:25)

Matthew gives us a reasonable explanation for Joseph bringing Mary into his home despite her pregnancy:

...the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary your wife into your home. For it is through the holy Spirit that this child has been conceived in her. She will bear a son and you are to name him Jesus, because he will save his people from their sins." (Matthew 1:20-21)

However, the angel doesn't say anything about abstaining from the marital act. On the contrary, the direction to "take Mary your wife into your home," heard by a first-century Jew, would seem to imply "take Mary and consummate your marriage."

I expect an answer to include the following verse in the same gospel:

"Behold, the virgin shall be with child and bear a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel," which means "God is with us." (Matthew 1:23)

Did both Joseph and Mary feel obliged to honor Isaiah's prophecy? Did they both know it applied to them? If so, what is the evidence?

Kris
  • 7,068
  • 5
  • 34
  • 69
qxn
  • 504
  • 2
  • 8
  • "the direction to 'take Mary your wife into your home,' heard by a first-century Jew, would seem to imply 'take Mary and consummate your marriage.'" - Do you have a source for this statement? – agarza Jan 19 '22 at 20:31
  • They knew the prophecy in Isaiah that said the child would be born of a Virgin. Not just conceived of a virgin – Kris Jan 19 '22 at 20:41
  • Joseph was alerted to the fact that the woman (with whom he had not yet had relations) was with child. And Joseph chose to wait, until the delivery of the child, until he knew his wife. On many levels I understand that situation, spiritually and doctrinally : but also I understand it as the response of a gentleman who respects and honours both his wife and his God. – Nigel J Jan 19 '22 at 21:03
  • Possible duplicate https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/61914/23657 – Kris Jan 19 '22 at 22:06
  • If Mary was pregnant (acknowledging a virgin conception) a subsequent consummation of the marriage while Mary was pregnant would not invalidate the virgin birth. Intercourse with a pregnant woman adds nothing to the existing pregnancy. – Mike Borden Jan 20 '22 at 00:47
  • 1
    You use the words 'virgin birth' that is to say a virgin delivering a child. And then you say that 'intercourse .... during pregnancy' would not invalidate it. Do you realise you have contradicted yourself ? – Nigel J Jan 20 '22 at 15:53
  • @mikeBorden^^^^ – Kris Jan 20 '22 at 17:02
  • To be fair @nigel he said it adds noting to the pregnancy. Still your point is correct virgin birth means what it means – Kris Jan 20 '22 at 17:04

1 Answers1

1

Joseph and Mary were not engaged and they were not married. They were betrothed. Betrothal was similar to modern engagement.

The key difference is that a modern engagement, legally, can be easily revoked. A first century betrothal needs a legal divorce to break it off.

So a betrothal is not marriage and is not engagement. A betrothal could continue many years, and there could be a host of different reasons why a couple would choose to delay their ultimate marriage. A common reason would probably have been financial considerations, reasons of poverty, or not having a home to live in after marriage.

Andrew Shanks
  • 7,398
  • 18
  • 38
  • 2
    How does this answer the question? Joseph “took her into his home”. They were married once that occurred – Kris Jan 19 '22 at 21:35
  • 2
    @Kris - Hasn't the OP answered his own question? They knew the prophecy "a virgin will conceive" applied to them, so they abstained from sexual relations until after the birth. To be honest, I'm not really sure why the question is being asked. – Andrew Shanks Jan 19 '22 at 21:40
  • Your answer to similar question😊 https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/61915/23657 – Kris Jan 19 '22 at 22:21
  • 1
    @Kris - That was SLM's answer.. pretty much identical to mine here. – Andrew Shanks Jan 19 '22 at 22:49
  • sorry I confused – Kris Jan 19 '22 at 23:17
  • See Mtt 1:25 in the context of biblical times when infertility was solely attributed to women . Mary proved her fertility by giving birth to Jesus . Absence of further children to the couple needed to be explained, lest the readers should take Joseph for an impotent man . And it was well known to those who witnessed the public life and death of Jesus, including how he entrusted the care of his mother to disciple John, that he had no sibling. So, Matthew chose to write about the life of abstinence that the couple had till the birth of Jesus, leaving the rest to the `as ye see it ' phase. – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan Jan 20 '22 at 05:20
  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan - Please see my answer here: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/71613/how-does-protestant-church-explain-luke-248/71633#71633 Thanks. – Andrew Shanks Feb 11 '22 at 18:44