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The Catholic Church teaches Mary, from the moment of conception, was free from original sin by the grace of Jesus. If this is true (which I do hold), then why does God not create everyone free from original sin?

Ken Graham
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Luke Hill
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    Um - with all respect, I’m confused by this doctrine. Original sin is the vehicle for our salvation. If God wants to forgive us based on the righteousness of Christ, the only way he can do that is by balancing this imputed righteousness out by declaring us guilty on the basis of Adam’s guilt.. If you take Adam’s guilt away… there is no vehicle remaining for God to forgive us AND to remain completely just… Does this declaration of being free from original sin also result in a completely sin-free life? If no, how is such a person to be declared righteousness..? –  Oct 28 '21 at 17:34
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    @ashely I think salvation gets a little to mixed up with the doctrine. The Immaculate Conception is a doctrine that Mary was given a singular grace at the moment of her conception to not do what the rest of us are apt to do. This was also the saving work of Jesus (working backward in time, I guess). Given that the Immaculate Conception doesn't mean Mary didn't have freewill, this is a pretty interesting question. I hope the answer isn't "because He wants to see us squirm" – Peter Turner Oct 28 '21 at 17:50
  • This question needs to be applied to Adam, not to humanity generally. The creature (Eve and Adam) went astray because they were creature. The uncreated came into the world (of woman) and his entrance was not of natural generation. The second humanity was a quickening spirit. – Nigel J Oct 28 '21 at 19:08
  • This question should be phrased in a way that lead to an objective answer. Rather than asking "why can't God" it should be phrased something like "According to Catholicism why only Mary was freed from original sin?" – GratefulDisciple Oct 28 '21 at 19:33
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    Related and a possible duplicate: If God could make Mary sinless, why not anybody else? – Ken Graham Oct 29 '21 at 09:07
  • Sorry guys I confused the point in my query with a lack of clarity, I really meant that if Mary’s original sin is taken away, what vehicle remains to forgive her actual sin? Unless the taking away of her sin applies to her actual sin as well, which it might.. The fact that we are imputed with Adam’s guilt is the only means by which we can be fairly imputed with Christ’s righteousness.. –  Oct 29 '21 at 10:19
  • Given that the teaching I am familiar with is that Mary was made immaculate in order to have a worthy vessel for the divine (Jesus) as He gestated in the womb (Mary thus became a living Ark of the Covenant, as some present it) the question looks to me like a non sequitur; it seems to miss the "why" of a sinless vessel for the divine being before he was to walk the world in the flesh. The correct question is "why doesn't" not "why can't" since can has already been demonstrated in Mary's case. – KorvinStarmast Oct 29 '21 at 12:18
  • @Luke I think you'll agree that the existential quantifier in these two questions "everyone vs anyone" doesn't matter to much for the purposes this question and the Dupe that Ken found. If God didn't make anyone else free from original sin, He wouldn't make everyone free from original sin. (Feel free to disagree!) – Peter Turner Oct 29 '21 at 13:41
  • Yes, just realized this is a dupe. It didn't pop up when I searched for it, probably because I searched for the immaculate conception and not "sinless" – Luke Hill Oct 29 '21 at 15:24
  • However, there is a difference between anybody and EVERYBODY. My question was more for everybody. – Luke Hill Oct 29 '21 at 15:29

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