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John 1:14 (YLT):

14 And the Word became flesh, and did tabernacle among us, and we beheld his glory, glory as of an only begotten of a father, full of grace and truth.

Philippians 2:5-8 (YLT):

5 For, let this mind be in you that [is] also in Christ Jesus,

6 who, being in the form of God, thought [it] not robbery to be equal to God,

7 but did empty himself, the form of a servant having taken, in the likeness of men having been made,

8 and in fashion having been found as a man, he humbled himself, having become obedient unto death -- death even of a cross,

I find some notable parallels between these two accounts:

  • Both appear to be talking about Jesus ("only begotten of a father", "Christ Jesus")
  • Both appear to be describing a transition from a prior state to a next state ("the Word became flesh", from "form of God"/"equal to God" to "form of a servant"/"found as a man")
  • Both mention the fact that this person lived among humans ("did tabernacle among us", "found as a man")

Do Biblical Unitarians agree that John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 are describing the same event?

Related BH.SE question: Are John 1:14 and Philippians 2:5-8 describing the same event?

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No, not exactly. While there are clearly some connections, we must be careful to not draw links that are unfounded and read-in that which is not intended.

  • One passage describes Jesus' birth through Mary which occurred at a specific point in time. This is the important point from v14. Jesus 'dwelling' amongst us does align with the Phil passage.
  • The Phil ref., describes Jesus' whole life. His consistent humbling and obedience, learned through suffering, was an ongoing emptying process. This enabled him to submit his will to God's will in all things leading to his suffering and death of the trial and crucifixion.

This 'lifetime' example is the one we are called to follow - 'have this mind in you'. Paul then describes what Jesus did to become the perfect servant - the perfect Lamb, for the perfect sacrifice for all.

The erroneous idea that there is, "a transition from a prior state to a next state" regarding the form of God and of a servant is not expressed in the scriptures. It is eliminated from a rational view when we consider that Jesus was constantly in the form of God - being the image of God and the one true means of knowing the Father. "If you have seen me, you have seen (known) the Father". Being full of grace and truth and the only begotten are references to his godliness as the true representation of his Father and God while living as a servant of God and man.

https://www.revisedenglishversion.com/Philippians/chapter2/7

The matter of equality is explained here

steveowen
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  • What do Unitarians say regarding the word became flesh? Was the word Jesus in prehuman existence? – Kris Oct 18 '21 at 05:38
  • Surely that is already answered elsewhere, but try this https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/84184/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-jesus-having-one-nature-only-a-human-nature/84341?r=SearchResults&s=9|3.3381#84341. No. – steveowen Oct 18 '21 at 05:42
  • @Kris Unitarians have different views on Jesus' pre-existence. My impression is that most Biblical Unitarians think Jesus did not have a pre-human existence (at least not any different from other humans - Christian Scientists, for example, believe all humans have pre-existing souls and Jesus did as well). I myself used to lean towards Jesus being the pre-existent Logos (but not God) but have been convinced in particular from arguments based on notional preexistence that Jesus never claimed to pre-exist in a sense beyond God's plan. – Only True God Oct 18 '21 at 06:10
  • @OneGodtheFather "I saw Satan fall like lightening from heaven". Surely that happened prior to 4BC. 1st person, imperfect, active, indicative...subject (Jesus) actually performs the act of observing in the past. – Mike Borden Oct 18 '21 at 12:12
  • @spirit. Jesus said before Abraham existed I have been John 8:58. – Kris Oct 18 '21 at 13:42
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    @Kris - did you mean to tag OneGodTheFather? –  Oct 18 '21 at 14:01
  • @Kris John 8:58 Jesus is referring to God's plan (that God's plan is being discussed is clear at John 8:56). The 'I am' or 'it is I' or 'it is me' is a reference to notional preexistence - it is Jesus who was being foretold of in God's plan to Abraham. – Only True God Oct 18 '21 at 17:35
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    @MikeBorden No, it happened when the 72 were sent out. Otherwise it's a puzzling comment. See https://www.revisedenglishversion.com/Luke/chapter10/18 In particular, "Some Christians teach that when Jesus said he saw Satan fall from heaven, he was saying that he existed in the beginning and saw when Satan and his demons rebelled against God and were cast out of heaven. That interpretation does not fit the context of the verse. What difference would it make in the context of Luke 10 that Jesus had seen Satan’s rebellion and fall?" – Only True God Oct 18 '21 at 17:39
  • @spirit yes my mistake. One god said he now understands that jesus did not pre exist. Yetjesushimself said that he did exist before Abraham – Kris Oct 18 '21 at 18:10
  • @Kris Already responded. :) – Only True God Oct 18 '21 at 18:27
  • @one is that “notional pre existence“ a Unitarian phrase? – Kris Oct 18 '21 at 19:59
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    @Kris Certainly 'notional pre-existence' is a phrase used by unitarians, but 'notional pre-existence' is also a concept used by academics who note a pattern of describing things as existing in God's mind or plan in ancient Jewish literature. It is not ad hoc, it is the application of a more general tendency to this specific case. – Only True God Oct 18 '21 at 20:53
  • @mike In the past what? days or millennia? big assumption based on a biased reading. "Surely" sums it up nicely. – steveowen Oct 19 '21 at 08:58
  • @OneGodtheFather Satan falling from heaven when Jesus sent out the 72 fits the context better? How many times was he cast out? The difference it makes is that Jesus was present at Satan's fall from glory and Jesus points that out in response to the 72's delight that demons are subject to them "in His name"...it's by way of explanation. They are subject to you in my name because I was there when he was expelled. In other words, I cast him out then and I cast him out now. – Mike Borden Oct 19 '21 at 12:15
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    @MikeBorden From the link given "Although some people mistakenly believe that Satan is no longer allowed in heaven, the Scripture testifies that he is often there, sometimes “day and night” (Job 1:6-7; 2:1-2; Rev. 12:10)." – Only True God Oct 19 '21 at 15:10
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    @MikeBorden Jesus doesn't say He cast Satan out. A strangely passive way of describing that, if that is indeed what He was describing. – Only True God Oct 19 '21 at 15:11
  • @OneGodtheFather If God spoke a word of expulsion to Satan (we do not know how that played out) then that Word was passive instrumentally (if that makes sense). If the sending of the 72 is in view, did Satan fall once at the outset, once throughout the process (like really slow lightening) or multiple times (72/2= 36 cities at least)? Why was Satan seen falling from heaven when the 72 were operating in the realm of the "prince of this world". It's too much for the comments section. – Mike Borden Oct 20 '21 at 12:31