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Jesus does not have a brother in the catholic tradition, his mother Mary is a perpetual virgin, which can hardly be compatible with having several children.

Yet in his epistle to the Galatians (1, 19), Paul calls James "the brother of the Lord". In the first letter to the Corinthians (9: 4-5), he mentions other brothers of the Lord who have the right to take their wives during their apostolic mission. It is clear in Paul's formulation that compares his rights with "other apostles and the Lord’s brothers, and the apostle Peter" that he does not attribute the qualifier of brother of the Lord only to a few specific individuals. It does not stand as synonym of disciple.

From this, several historians hold the position that either Joseph or Mary had children together or from previous relationships for Joseph like P-A. Bernheim1 , or F. Blanchetière2 , who point out that, Paul never qualifies Peter or John as brother of the Lord, or Fr John P. Meier who denies3 the theory of cousins that never appears in the Greek version of the Old Testament in which the term adelphos marks exclusively the fraternal bond of blood or right.

However the Catholic church and many Catholic exegetes believe that Mary didn't had other children, according to the Catechism of the Catholic Church, following the traditional reading based on the later belief in the perpetual virginity of Mary, following Jerome 4, the first Father of the Church to argue against the siblings theory for the benefit of the cousins one at the end of the fourth century. They also recuse the half-brothers and sisters theory presented in an apocryphal gospel from James, around 180, born of a first marriage of Joseph from previous relationships.

Why these "Brothers of the Lord" have been embarrassing for the Catholic Church which make them gradually forgotten and lose their quality of brothers? Why at the same time as the cult of chastity develops, whose mother of Jesus becomes the symbol and which will find its apogee in the doctrine of its perpetual virginity?

Note : Other like Assyrian and part of protestants hold this doctrine as well but I narrow my question to the Catholic Church as far as the different schisms had not yet been pronounced when the doctrine was created.

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    This is more of a rant than a question, and will probably be closed as "opinion based". "Why" questions don't generally do well here unless very narrowly targeted. – Bit Chaser Aug 17 '18 at 14:02
  • @disciple How, how should it be formulated? I tried to explain all the sources I had and my hypothesis which are historical, not theological – Revolucion for Monica Aug 17 '18 at 14:06
  • It appears to me that you want to write an answer, not a question. You have some scriptural references and one author reference to support an answer, if only you or someone could frame the right question. It appears you are eligible to use the chat feature. If you wish to create a chat room on the subject, or want me to, we can discuss the subject there. – Bit Chaser Aug 17 '18 at 15:27
  • @disciple Yes ! With pleasure ! I'm wondering if this question might not belongs or be answerable by christian SE and rather by history SE as it is maybe more a political or historical question than a theological ? – Revolucion for Monica Aug 17 '18 at 15:35
  • I created this one with a different title, if the title is better and less "opinion based" I will change the one of the question by the title of the chat. – Revolucion for Monica Aug 17 '18 at 15:46
  • Ok, chat room https://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/81834/marys-other-children created. Choose which chat room you wish to keep. – Bit Chaser Aug 17 '18 at 16:06
  • In the medieval period the church believed this. Who exactly in the church (the pope, the faith congregation ...) do you think is doing such kind of teaching today? I can only speak for the parishes I was belonging to: At least the local priests and theologians today will deny that Mary was still virgin before the birth of "the brothers and sisters" of Jesus mentioned in the bible. – Martin Rosenau Aug 18 '18 at 06:44
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    This is not "embarrassing" at all for the Catholic Church. The Orthodox traditions think like us also. – Ken Graham Aug 18 '18 at 15:02
  • I think it depends which. The Wikipedia page on Brother of Jesus seems to give a quite extensive list of those who share this doctrine, they are listed in it, whereas the French version and the Spanish version list those who don't like the Eastern Christianity and "los ortodoxos orientales". I'm going to update for those who make consensus. – Revolucion for Monica Aug 18 '18 at 15:12
  • But I will narrow to the Catholic Church as far as the schism had not yet been pronounced when the doctrine was created. Others received it as a spiritual heritage that they could criticise as Calvin which left room for doubt. – Revolucion for Monica Aug 18 '18 at 15:21
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    That is great to limit this to the Catholic Church for "as far as the schism hat not yet pronounced when the doctrine was Created." The Orthodox clearly think like us and use historical proofs just like Catholics. The Syriac Orthodox Church is part of Oriental Orthodoxy, a distinct communion of churches claiming to continue the patristic and Apostolic Christology before the schism following the Council of Chalcedon in 451. – Ken Graham Aug 18 '18 at 16:20
  • Wikipedia is not a great source to use in many situations. Anyone can edit it. – Ken Graham Aug 18 '18 at 21:10
  • @KenGraham True, like here. But according to IBM "vandalism is usually repaired extremely quickly" and Wikipedia have a "surprisingly effective self-healing capabilities". – Revolucion for Monica Aug 18 '18 at 21:47
  • @ThePassenger: Great research. However, your questions are unintelligible. Possible questions: What are the earliest claims that those called Jesus' "adelphoi" in the Christian scriptures weren't full siblings? On what basis are these passages understood as not meaning full siblings? What are the earliest claims of Mary's perpetual virginity? What is the origin of Christian exaltation of virginity? – sondra.kinsey Oct 14 '18 at 15:17
  • @ThePassenger The position is not held against the historians. All of Christianity from the early church up until the Reformation, and then even past it up until the last 200 years all believed in Mary's perpetual virginity (with the exception of Tertullian and a heretical sect from around 380 AD). A convincing case can be made from both the historical record and from scripture, as you can see here. – emeth Jun 22 '19 at 05:32

1 Answers1

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According to @SLM the earliest belief was Mary/Joseph had children after Christ's birth. Origin says the source of ever-virgin (EV) and step-brother explanation is Infancy Gospel of James [where he presents himself as the half-brother of Jesus. ed O.P.]. Nothing about politics. Jerome couldn't bear the thought of a non-virgin Joseph, so invented the cousin theory. But in all that consideration, there's not a mention that he is aware of in a sibling conflict with Jerusalem or Rome. At least on the ever virgin doctrine.

It is therefore Jerome who would have created this belief to 383 by its significant influence during these three years spent in Rome, including his zeal to advocate asceticism. Even though this belief is already inscribed in the symbol of faith of St. Epiphanius, in 374. The reason he believed and created this belief can maybe be found in Against Helvidius and through is whole life. Indeed Jerome defends throughout his life the possibility for women to have a consecrated life according to Philippe Henne. That would have lead him to defend the virginity of women in this treatise. Indeed Helvidius denied the perpetual virginity of Mary, saying it did not matter, and defended that Jesus had brothers but using different sources than the Gospel of James. Jerome, in the words of the Bible, defended that the concept of brother is broader in the gospels.

This idea would then have spread, while the status of women in Rome at the time of Jerome gave way to a large emancipation for the wealthy women of Rome at the time; the appearance of consecrated women encouraged by Jerome is therefore a novelty that is frowned upon by Roman society. But supported by women of influences and devotees to Rome according to Philippe Henne, like Marcella, friend of Pope Damase, then other women of Rome like Paule to whom he teaches the Bible and exegesis.

The doctrine is then proclaimed as a "truth of Faith" at the Second Council of Constantinople in 553, which pronounces in the second anathema:

"The Word of God, incarnate in the holy and glorious Mother of God and always Virgin Mary, is born of her"

As an attempt to sum-up and conclude, the reason the Catholic Church hold Mary's virginity and the absence of brothers against the historians is due to ideas of Jerome. Okay, that's my interpretation from my historical research. I'm happy it raised controversial attention. Feel free to discuss it or propose another hypothesis ?

As an opening question some points still remains unclear like how the spreading of the doctrine in Jerome's social circles women of devout reached the whole Church. Maybe he has to search in the spreading of the Vulgate that Jerome wrote ? And another is what about the reason given nowadays as historical knowledge have improved? Why didn't this doctrine shifted with the time and scientific knowledge, like it shifted from geocentrism?

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    Others have also asked and answered their own question. Not a problem, but you may want to revise the question or focus just on a potential conflict between James (brother of the Lord) and Peter. – SLM Aug 17 '18 at 17:32
  • @SLM, oh, this is not an answer stricto sensu but rather my hypotheses and research so far if it can help others. I am looking for an answer. – Revolucion for Monica Aug 17 '18 at 19:16
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    the earliest belief was Mary/Joseph had children after Christ's birth. Origin says the source of ever-virgin (EV) and step-brother explanation is Infancy Gospel of James. Nothing about politics. Jerome couldn't bear the thought of a non-virgin Joseph, so invented the cousin theory. But in all that consideration, there's not a mention that I'm aware of in a sibling conflict with Jerusalem or Rome. James was first bishop in Jerusalem followed by others until Rome destroyed it and later installed gentile bishops. James and Peter and Paul clashed (see Acts), but nothing EV. – SLM Aug 18 '18 at 01:38
  • Interesting. And why Jerome couldn't bear of a non-virgin Joseph? Because ever-virgin is a dogma I'm aware of but not Joseph's. And, still, how was Mary's EV was created as far as the Gospel of James is an apocryphal if it means whose authenticity is not established? Unless it was established by the catholic Church but not the historians? – Revolucion for Monica Aug 18 '18 at 01:49
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    While this is now an "answer," it is still seriously inaccurate – you should read Wikipedia's page on this subject, as there are other, much older defenses of Mary's perpetual virginity than Jerome's. – Nathaniel is protesting Aug 20 '18 at 12:03
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    You also seem to think that "historians" are some neutral group out there who have no biases or presuppositions, but that is not correct. Secular and liberal Christian historians reject the idea of the virgin birth on its own, many Protestant historians reject the idea of perpetual virginity (but accept virgin birth), and Catholic historians accept perpetual virginity. – Nathaniel is protesting Aug 20 '18 at 12:06
  • @Nathaniel Yes, I already noted St. Epiphanius, in 374.And yes, it may be one of my mistakes but I make the assumption that scientists are neutral, and not necessarily Christians by the way, which is even rare in the educational world I know. – Revolucion for Monica Aug 21 '18 at 20:33
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    @Nathaniel you may want to reread your link to Wiki re ever-virgin. It confirms what I stated. – SLM Aug 23 '18 at 02:02
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    @slm Your comment looks correct, but this answer is not. – Nathaniel is protesting Aug 23 '18 at 11:02