What is the theological basis both body and blood being present in both the eucharist host and the wine? (Catholic perspective)

Question

What is the theological basis for the conclusion that both species (body and blood) are fully present in both the transubstantiated wine and eucharist host?

This question is asked after learning that according to Catholic doctrine, either the consecrated host or the consecrated wine are by themselves perfectly sufficient for communion to be received.

Please, only answers from a Catholic theological perspective.

There is a difference between either being perfectly sufficient, and both containing both. — Andrew Leach, Mar 06 '17 at 22:10
@ Andrew Primary question is the latter. Information concerning your former welcome as a footnote. — Resting in Shade, Mar 07 '17 at 01:11
I suspect that theologically, it has something to do with 1. Divine Simplicity 2. The hypostatic union 3. Perichoresis/circumincession/interpenetration/coinherence. Go and investigate those terms and concepts and you might gain some intuition for why the blood is present in the body and why the body is present in the blood — TheIronKnuckle, Mar 07 '17 at 20:49
Possible duplicate of How do Catholics support transubstantiation? — curiousdannii, Mar 08 '17 at 00:36
This is not a duplicate of that question. That question is asking for the basis of transubstantiation in general. This question is asking specifically for the basis of both body and blood being present in both the bread and the wine. The two questions are not the same. — Lee Woofenden, Mar 08 '17 at 02:11

score 3 · Answer 1 · edited Mar 08 '17 at 02:17

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1 Corinthians 11:27-29 forms the theological basis for the conclusion that under each of the species (bread and wine), the body and blood of Christ is fully present after transubstantiation.

That verse states that 'if anyone eats this bread or drinks this cup of the Lord unworthily, he will be held to account for the Lord’s body and blood.'

Here St. Paul attaches the same guilt "of the body and the blood of the Lord" (copulative) to the unworthy "eating or drinking" (disjunctive).

In its article The Real Presence of Christ in the Eucharist, Catholic Encyclopedia points out that based on this verse Catholic Church believes that Jesus, in the species of bread alone, is fully present with his entire body, blood, soul and Divinity.

edited Mar 08 '17 at 02:17

Lee Woofenden

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answered Mar 07 '17 at 17:45

Jayarathina Madharasan

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Good answer, but you are talking about the biblical basis, not the theological basis – TheIronKnuckle Mar 07 '17 at 20:50
@TheIronKnuckle I am sorry, I don't get the difference. Isn't Bible the basis for all Christian theological studies? Can you please explain a bit more about the difference between those? – Jayarathina Madharasan Mar 08 '17 at 10:21
The biblical basis is where you just take a bunch of proof texts from the bible and provide a surface level interpretation of the words. The theological basis goes into much more depth and draws on more sources than just the bible (eg philosophy, tradition). If he asked for a Protestant answer then it would be fine to say that the biblical basis is the same as the theological basis, but he asked for a catholic answer, and in Catholicism we don't do sola scriptura, and have no problem going well beyond the bible to do our theology – TheIronKnuckle Mar 08 '17 at 11:02

What is the theological basis both body and blood being present in both the eucharist host and the wine? (Catholic perspective)

1 Answers1