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Why is the Prayer of Manasseh considered apocryphal by Jews, Catholics and Protestants?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Prayer_of_Manasseh

David
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The prayer departs from Christian teaching in that it says men such as Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob did not need to repent because they “did not sin” (verse 8). This runs counter to the clear teaching of Scripture that all have sinned (Romans 3:10-12; Romans 3:21-26). The righteousness of Abraham was a product of his faith in God and was not anything inherent in him (Romans 4:3; Philippians 3:8-9).

https://www.gotquestions.org/Prayer-of-Manasseh.html

David
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  • This explanation is completely bogus. The word in the Septuagint for "sin" in this particular verse is ἁμαρτάνω, which can also simply mean to do wrong. Further, if Manasseh was removed on this basis alone, then the Gospel of John should have been removed as well because Christ said in 9:3 than neither the blind man nor his parents had sinned. I think we need some source more authoritative than "gotquestions.org" here. – guest37 Mar 03 '17 at 06:31
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    @user33515 a fine and fair point Sir! I have revoked my own accepted answer...please feel free to post an answer. – David Mar 03 '17 at 21:55
  • See Matthew 9:13; Mark 2:17; Luke 5:32. –  Nov 05 '19 at 12:12