Many prophets are mentiond in the old testament, and they are all flesh-and-blood (btw, Muhammad is also flesh and blood). So why did God deliver his message through Jesus (God's "manifestation"), instead of sending another flesh-and-blood prophet like he used to?
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Please see this meta post before you post another question. Types of questions that are within community guidelines – Nov 22 '14 at 23:30
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8Christ was flesh and blood... – ShemSeger Nov 22 '14 at 23:34
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Hi @fredsbend, I've read that post. I think this question is different than what's described there. You're implying that the only answer to my question is "that's the way it is"... – Sparkler Nov 22 '14 at 23:35
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@ShemSeger, I'm confused. Was Jesus flesh-and-blood in one time, and God in another, or both at the same time? – Sparkler Nov 22 '14 at 23:37
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@Sparkler The link is a meta post, meaning, it is a post about using this site. In that link are six types of questions that the community will answer. All others are subject to be placed on hold, like your previous one. This question is not like any of those types. – Nov 22 '14 at 23:40
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@fredsbend I know it's meta, that's what I meant: I don't think my question goes under any of the mentioned categories there. – Sparkler Nov 22 '14 at 23:41
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4Have a look at this post to learn some of the prominent christologies within Christianity: What are the most prominent christologies in all of Christendom? – Nov 22 '14 at 23:41
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1Most Christians believe that Jesus is 100% human and 100% divine. It is a great mystery how this can be, but believed nonetheless. – Nov 22 '14 at 23:44
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Being the largest Christian group across the world by more than half, this is worth looking at too: What is Roman Catholic Church's official view on the nature of Christ? – Nov 22 '14 at 23:47
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1@fredsbend, I wish I could upvote your comments :) – Sparkler Nov 22 '14 at 23:48
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It seems that you have much confusion about what Christians believe about Jesus. Read though those posts for a very basic gist. The nature of Christ is very likely the thing Christians talk about most. – Nov 22 '14 at 23:48
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@Sparkler - The nature of God is not wholly agreed upon by all denominations of Christianity. Since you directed your question at me, I'll give you the Mormon answer: Christ was a spirit while God of the old Testament, he has born into a body of flesh and blood on Earth, died, and was resurrected with a perfect body of flesh and bone–but no blood... (see more). – ShemSeger Nov 22 '14 at 23:54
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@Sparkler fundamentally, Muslims believe that Jesus was a prophet. Christians believe him to be Our Saviour- the one who saves us from our sin. Flesh and blood alone cannot do that. – Affable Geek Nov 23 '14 at 04:40
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@Sparkler: You can up-vote comments. – Flimzy Nov 23 '14 at 13:39
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@Flimzy Sparkler might need more rep first – curiousdannii Nov 23 '14 at 22:08
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Why God delivered His message through Jesus, God's manifestation, instead of using a prophet like He had at other times, is because what Jesus delivered was more than just a message.
Jesus actually became the message, and He was the only one qualified to do so, because the requirements for this job had to be sinlessness, and not just sinlessness, but the perfect sacrifice to satisfy the debt owed on behalf of all of humanity and their sin. He not only had to be sinless, pay the penalty, but He had to redo what Adam undid, He had to be a man and reverse the curse by never choosing sin, which Jesus also did.
Since sinlessness is unachievable by humans, God sent Jesus.
Jesus paid for this debt with his own life and blood, and the Father accepted it as just payment for the sins of humanity for all time.
"for He (Jesus) who knew no sin, became sin for us, so that we could become the righteousness of God in Christ Jesus." 2 Cor 5:21 Bible
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This same price could be paid by any flesh-and-blood, such as in the Binding of Isaac (which eventually was prevented, but nontheless). – Sparkler Nov 23 '14 at 01:02
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1@Sparkler -wrong, no other human could have paid the price for the sins of the whole earth, it required sinlessness and Jesus was also God, laying down his life for all of us, paying our debt Himself. – Hello Nov 23 '14 at 01:10
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What you're implying is that it was God's interest to forgive humanity. Is that so? – Sparkler Nov 23 '14 at 01:16
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Humanity created a rift between them and God, and God came Himself and paid the penalty for the rift with his own brutal painful death after many hours of torture. He satisfied and fixed the problem by punishing Himself instead of man. – Hello Nov 23 '14 at 03:23
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Before Jesus, "flesh-and-blood" monotheistic prophets could only address God through what later was termed Apophatic theology. The "introduction" of Jesus brings in what was later termed Cataphatic theology. This significant change made the concept of God much more accessible to humanity than before.
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2Um, Apophatic Theology is typically associated with the Eastern Orthodox, well after Jesus. The Jewish prophets were very clear in positively identifying God as merciful and just- cataphatically identifying who He is, not merely negating what he is not. This answer is simply nonsensical. – Affable Geek Nov 23 '14 at 03:27
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@AffableGeek, positive identification is all over, but isn't it only figurative? moreover, the negation is well established in the old testament (1 Kings 19 11:12). – Sparkler Nov 23 '14 at 03:35
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No. God is very clear "I will be your God, and you will be my people." That isn't figurative. That is as cataphatic as it gets. When Moses sees God's glory, or Jacob sees God face to face and wrestles with him - these aren't figurative things. This is a positive manifestation of a "God with us" pitching his tent and leading the Children of Israel out of Egypt in a very present and direct manner. – Affable Geek Nov 23 '14 at 03:43
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2I'm sorry, but the premise of your argument is fundamentally flawed. – Affable Geek Nov 23 '14 at 03:44
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@AffableGeek, to my understanding "I will be your God, and you will be my people" is neither cataphatic or apophatic. – Sparkler Nov 23 '14 at 03:44