1

What is the Roman Catholic position on the validity of the marriage between an infertile man and infertile woman? Also, from this standpoint, what is the difference between a marriage in which both partners are opposing sexes but infertile and a marriage in which both partners are the same sex?

warren
  • 12,665
  • 5
  • 47
  • 108
kyle k
  • 161
  • 5
  • 2
    Can you scope your question a little to a specific denomination? This question, I believe, is asking for personal opinion. That, or it's a "truth" question. – Double U Aug 07 '13 at 22:04
  • 2
    As anonymous says you've got to scope this a bit more. Christianity is not monolithic and there may not be one specific reason for this. You'll need to tighten this up to either speak to a specific group or doctrine. Essentially, this question shows a lack of any attempt to learn the answer before asking. – wax eagle Aug 07 '13 at 23:13
  • 1
    @waxeagle My question is now more cleared up and is more specific to one denomination. – kyle k Aug 08 '13 at 02:43
  • 5
    Your secondary question about same-sex marriage falsely assumes that the reason why the Church considers it a sin is because they cannot conceive. – Steven Doggart Aug 08 '13 at 13:32
  • in addition to the comment from @StevenDoggart, you've also presumed the man and woman *KNOW* they are infertile, and choose to get married in spite. You've also implicitly disallowed those beyond the years of child-bearing (eg a couple in their 60s or 70s) from marrying – warren Oct 03 '13 at 16:09

1 Answers1

7

I assume you are asking about the validity of a marriage between people who cannot conceive children. The position is summed up in this paper. To summarize:

Infertility does not prevent a person from validly entering into marriage. The Code of Canon Law affirms, “Sterility neither prohibits nor invalidates marriage” (No. 1084.3). Appreciating the suffering of an infertile couple, the Catechism states, “Spouses to whom God has not granted children can nevertheless have a conjugal life full of meaning, in both human and Christian terms. Their marriage can radiate a fruitfulness of charity, of hospitality, and of sacrifice” (No. 1654). In this case, a couple can consummate the marriage, but they just cannot conceive children.

Your last point, about marriage between partners of the same sex, is an entirely different question and I suggest you ask it separately.

DJClayworth
  • 31,560
  • 5
  • 61
  • 127
  • 5
    I would add that the couple should still have an openness to children because doctors can be wrong and God can work miracles. – brader24 Aug 08 '13 at 11:53
  • Indeed it is the requirement for openness to children that people often confuse with a requirement to have children in Catholicism. Just because you are open to children doesn't mean God will necessarily cause you to have them. – Please stop being evil Jan 07 '15 at 08:31