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I know Ancient Latin was subjected to a phenomenon called "rhotacism", which changed some s into r. However, I can't help but ask myself why it happened.

Why did rhotacism happen? Did it influence all words containing s, or not? If not, which types of words were affected?

Nathaniel is protesting
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Eithne
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4 Answers4

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It's often difficult to say "why" a sound change happened, so I'll focus on your other questions. Rhotacism in Latin happened via a series of sound changes. It only affected inherited *s in specific environments.

The reconstructed steps of rhotacism, and their conditions

The first step towards rhotacism is believed to have been voicing of single "s" to the sound [z] in certain contexts: generally, between vowels. Phonologically, this change can be seen as an assimilation of the consonant to the surrounding voiced segments. This kind of voicing assimilation is common historically; for example, it also occured between Classical Latin and many Romance languages. Double ss remained unvoiced.

In some related languages, such as Oscan, /z/ remained as such between vowels and did not undergo rhotacism. We know this because we have Oscan inscriptions written in the Latin alphabet that use the letter Z for this sound (Buck 1904). (However, my understanding is that we don't have evidence of the letter Z being used this way in Latin inscriptions: see the related question Why are there no native Latin words with a Z?)

The next step of rhotacism (z > r) is a little less common across languages, but we do have some other examples. The process also applied historically in Germanic; one place where you can see the result in English is forlorn, which is historically related to the verb lose. Rhotacism is thought to have occured in Old Latin, and to have been complete by the 4th century BCE.

As a result of these changes, original intervocalic *s ultimately became r in Classical Latin. In the ancestor of Latin, *s seems to have also been voiced to [z] after the voiced resonant /r/, so another related sound change is original *rs to Classical Latin rr. One word that shows this change is terra "earth," from Proto-Indo-European *ters- ‎(“dry”). The cluster rs that occurs in Classical Latin is a simplification of earlier *rtt or *rts; this is why most words with rs also have rt in some forms or in related words (such as ars "art," genitive artis). There also seems to have been voicing of *s after the voiced lateral resonant /l/, but the end outcome of that cluster in Classical Latin was geminate ll.

These two environments (between vowels and after r) are the main cases where Latin r regularly came from earlier *s.

Other, less typical contexts

There seem to be some words with r followed by a consonant where the r was originally intervocalic *s, but the following vowel was lost (as in veternus).

There also seem to be some words where *s developed into z and then r directly before a voiced consonant; in fact, the voicing in these words seems to have occurred earlier than the intervocalic voicing. For example, Proto-Indo-European *-sg- seems to be the ancestor of rg in mergo "to immerse, engulf" and probably in virga "twig, switch, rod" (de Melo). This also applied before the semivowel v [w]; thanks to TKR for pointing this out in a comment.

A strange example that looks like it underwent rhotacization between Old and Classical Latin is the word carmen, which Lewis and Short say used to be casmen. This is odd because my understanding is that before a nasal like m, s usually did not undergo rhotacism, but was dropped instead, lengthening a preceding vowel if there was one. De Vaan (2008) says that the r in the form carmen is not derived from a change of -sn- to -rn-, but instead from dissimilation of -nm- to -rm- in a hypothetical form *canmen.

In Classical Latin, the distribution of r and s often didn't conform to the conditions of rhotacism, which indicates that it was no longer an active sound change by that time

Once the sound r became established in certain words, their derivatives might come to have it in other environments. For example, as Joonas Ilmavirta mentions, some words such as honor developed final r instead of s after a vowel; it's believed this is due to the presence of r in other related forms (like honoris).

Single intervocalic s did exist in Classical Latin; we believe it was pronounced [s]. In many words, it corresponds to inherited *ss, which was regularly shortened in some environments (for example, after a diphthong or long vowel). Other words with intervocalic s have been explained as borrowings from other languages, such as Greek or Italic languages such as Oscan that did not undergo rhotacism. Whatever the reason, their presence indicates that rhotacism was not active as an automatic sound change in the Classical era (Gorman).

Peck summarizes the change as follows:

In Latin rhotacism is a regular law, for though there are many apparent exceptions to it, examination shows that in most of these cases the s was not originally intervocalic or else that the word is of (a) foreign or (b) late origin. [...]

The unvoiced s first passes into the voiced s (z) and thence to lingual r, for the position of the vocal organs in pronouncing z is substantially the same as that required for r.

References:

Asteroides
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    +1 I believe English are is another example? There are plenty of examples in Dutch, such as vriezen, gevroren and kiezen, uitverkoren. – Cerberus Feb 24 '16 at 16:56
  • so where exactly did you address the "Why did rhotacism happen?"-part? 2. Did it influence all words containing s? (any exceptions, like miser, basis or rosa?) and why?
  • – Alex B. Feb 24 '16 at 17:23
  • also, with due respect, did you read that Gorman's paper? His proposal is that "[t]here is no motivation for a phonologically-general RHOTACISM: much of its apparent coverage is due to PRE-/s/ DELETION, and what remains is just as well regarded as exceptional." – Alex B. Feb 24 '16 at 17:41
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    Rhotacism also occurred in intervocalic -sw- clusters: Minerva < Menes-wa, caterva < kates-wa. – TKR Feb 24 '16 at 18:18
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    The Gorman article, as far as I understand it, argues again rhotacism as a synchronic phonological rule of Latin -- not against its historical reality as a sound change (which would be ridiculous). I don't think it's relevant at all. – TKR Feb 24 '16 at 18:25
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    @TKR: thanks, I have incorporated that information into the answer. I want to add more information about the timeframe when rhotacism was active, so I am planning to do some more research. I cited the Gorman article because it contained relevant historical information (for example, it also mentions pre-s deletion). Of course, Gorman does not dispute that the historical sound change s > r existed at one point. – Asteroides Feb 24 '16 at 19:10